10 PROPOSED ADMINISTRATIVE RULES  

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    SOAHR 2006-065

     

    DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENTAL QUALITY WASTE AND HAZARDOUS MATERIALS DIVISION HAZARDOUS WASTE MANAGEMENT

    Filed with the Secretary of State on

    These rules take effect 7 days after filing with the Secretary of State

     

    (By authority conferred on the director and the department of environmental quality by sections 11115a, 11115b, 11118, 11123, 11127, 11128, 11130, 11132a, 11137, 11138, 11140, 11141, and 11153 of 1994

    PA 451, and Executive Reorganization Order No. 1995-16, MCL 324.11115a, 324.11115b, 324.11118, 324.11123,   324.11127,   324.11128,   324.11130,   324.11132a,   324.11137,   324.11138,   324.11140,

    324.11141, 324.11153, and 324.99903)

     

    Draft August 21, 2007

     

    R 299.9101, R 299.9102, R 299.9104, R 299.9105, R 299.9203, R 299.9204, R 299.9207, R 299.9212,

    R 299.9222, R 299.9224, R 299.9225, R 299.9226, R 299.9227, R 299.9228, R 299.9304, R 299.9305,

    R 299.9306, R 299.9307, R 299.9308, R 299.9309, R 299.9310, R 299.9401, R 299.9404, R 299.9405,

    R 299.9409, R 299.9503, R 299.9504, R 299.9519, R 299.9521, R 299.9601, R 299.9605,  R 299.9607,

    R 299.9608, R 299.9609, R 299.9610, R 299.9612, R 299.9613, R 299.9615, R 299.9623, R 299.9629,

    R 299.9640,   R 299.9705,    299.9710,   R 299.9808,   R 299.11001,   R 299.11002,   R 299.11003,

    R 299.11004, and R 299.11005 of the Michigan Administrative Code are amended and R 299.9231 and R 299.11009 are added to read as follows:

     

    R 299.9101 Definitions; A, B. Rule 101. As used in these rules:

    (a)       "Aboveground tank" means a device which meets the definition of "tank" in this part and which is situated in such a way that the entire surface area of the tank is completely above the plane of the adjacent surrounding surface bottom and can be visually inspected.

    (b)        "Act" means 1994 PA 451, MCL 324.101, and known as the natural resources and environmental protection act.

    (c)         "Act 138" means 1998 PA 138, MCL 29.471 to 29.480, and known as the hazardous materials transportation act.

    (d)      "Act 181" means 1963 PA 181, MCL 480.14, and known as the motor carrier safety act.

    (e)      "Act 207" means 1941 PA 207, MCL 29.1, and known as the fire prevention code.

    (f)      "Act 218" means sections 3101 and 3102 of 1956 PA 218, MCL 500.3101 and 500.3102, and known as the insurance code of 1956.

    (g)    "Act 236" means 1961 PA 236, MCL 600.101, and known as the revised judicature act.

    (h)      "Act 300" means 1949 PA 300, MCL 257.1, and known as the Michigan vehicle code.

     

     

    (i)        "Act 306" means 1969 PA 306, MCL 24.201, and known as the administrative procedures act of 1969.

    (j)      "Act 368" means 1978 PA 368, MCL 333.1101, and known as the public health code.

    (k)      "Act 399" means 1976 PA 399, MCL 325.1001, and known as the safe drinking water act.

    (l)        "Active life" means the period from the initial receipt of hazardous waste at a facility until the director receives certification of final closure.

    (m)        "Active portion" means that portion of a facility where treatment, storage, or disposal operations are being, or have been, conducted after November 19, 1980, and which is not a closed portion. (See also "closed portion" and "inactive portion")

    (n)      "Active range" means a military range that is currently in service and being regularly used for range activities.

    (o)      "Administrator" means the administrator of the EPA or the administrator's designee.

    (p)       "Agent," when used in conjunction with the term United States importer, means an employee of the United States importer or a legally recognized representative of the United States importer who has been authorized in a lawfully executed written document, such as a power of attorney, to act on the United States importer's behalf.

    (q)       "Agreement state" means a state that has entered into an agreement with the NRC under subsection 274b of the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended, to assume responsibility for regulating within its borders byproduct, source, or special nuclear material in quantities not sufficient to form a critical mass.

    (r)      "Ampule" means an airtight vial made of glass, plastic, metal, or any combination of these materials.  (rs) "Ancillary equipment" means any device, including, but not limited to, such devices as piping, fittings, flanges, valves, and pumps, that is used to distribute, meter, or control the flow of hazardous waste from its point of generation to storage or treatment tanks, between hazardous waste storage and treatment tanks to a point of disposal on site, or to a point of shipment for disposal off site.

    (t) "Antifreeze" means a mixture containing ethylene glycol or propylene glycol for use as a heat transfer or dehydration fluid for the purposes of regulation as a universal waste under R 299.9228.

    (su) "Aquifer" means a geologic formation, group of formations, or part of a formation that is capable of yielding a significant amount of groundwater to wells or springs.

    (i)      The primary SIC code at the facility is 2869 but operations may also include SIC codes 2821, 2822, and 2865.

    (ii)      The facility is physically co-located with a petroleum refinery.

    (iii)      The petroleum refinery to which the oil that is being recycled is returned also provides hydrocarbon feedstocks to the facility.

    (uw) "ASTM" means the American society for testing and materials.

    (vx) "Authorized representative" means the person who is responsible for the overall operation of a facility or an operational unit, such as the plant manager, superintendent, or person who has equivalent responsibilities.

    (wy) "Battery" means a device which consists of 1 or more electrically connected electrochemical cells and which is designed to receive, store, and deliver electric energy. An electrochemical cell is a system that consists of an anode, a cathode, an electrolyte, and any such connections that are needed to allow the cell to deliver or receive electrical energy. The term battery also includes an intact, unbroken battery from which the electrolyte has been removed.

    (xz) "Boiler" means an enclosed device which uses controlled flame combustion and which is either determined by the director to be a boiler based on the standards and procedures set forth in 40 C.F.R.

    §§260.32 and 260.33, which are adopted by reference in R 299.11003, or which is in compliance with all of the following characteristics:

     

     

    (i)       The unit shall have physical provisions for recovering and exporting thermal energy in the form of steam, heated fluids, or heated gases.

    (ii)         The unit's combustion chamber and primary energy recovery section or sections shall be of an integral design. To be of an integral design, the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section or sections, such as waterwalls and superheaters, shall be physically formed into 1 manufactured or assembled unit. A unit in which the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section or sections are joined only by ducts or connections carrying flue gas is not integrally designed; however, secondary energy recovery equipment, such as economizers or air preheaters, need not be physically formed into the same unit as the combustion chamber and the primary energy recovery section. The following units are not precluded from being boilers solely because they are not of an integral design:

    (A)    Process heaters or units that transfer energy directly to a process stream.

    (B)    Fluidized bed combustion units.

    (iii)        While in operation, the unit shall maintain a thermal energy recovery efficiency of not less than 60% calculated in terms of the recovered energy compared with the thermal value of the fuel.

    (iv)       The unit shall export and utilize not less than 75% of the recovered energy calculated on an annual basis. In this calculation, credit shall not be given for recovered heat that is used internally in the same unit, such as for the preheating of fuel or combustion air and for the driving of induced or forced draft fans or feedwater pumps.

    (yaa) "Burner" means an owner or operator of a facility that burns either used oil fuel or hazardous waste fuel.

    (zbb) "By-product" means a material which is not one of the primary products of a production process and which is not solely or separately produced by the production process. Examples are process residues such as slags or distillation column bottoms. The term does not include a coproduct which is produced for the general public's use and which is ordinarily used in the form in which it is produced by the process.

     

    R 299.9102 Definitions; C, D. Rule 102. As used in these rules:

    (a)        "Carbon regeneration unit" means an enclosed thermal treatment device used to regenerate spent activated carbon.

    (b)        "Cathode ray tube" or "CRT" means a vacuum tube, composed primarily of glass, which is the visual or video display component of an electronic device. A used, intact CRT is a CRT whose vacuum has not been released. A used, broken CRT means glass removed from its housing or casing whose vacuum has been released.

    (bc) "CERCLA" means the comprehensive environmental response compensation and liability act of 1980, as amended, 42 U.S.C. §9601 et seq.

    (cd) "Certification" means a statement of professional opinion based upon knowledge or belief.

    (de) "Certified delivery" means certified mail with return receipt requested, or equivalent courier service or other means, that provides the sender with a receipt confirming delivery.

    (ef) "C.F.R." means the Code of Federal Regulations.

    (gh) "Closed portion" means the portion of a facility that an owner or operator has closed pursuant to the approved facility closure plan and all applicable closure requirements. (See also "active portion" and "inactive portion.")

    (hi) "Combustion zone" means the portion of the internal capacity of an incinerator where the gas temperatures of the materials being burned are within 100 degrees Celsius of the specified operating temperature.

     

     

    (kl) "Confined aquifer" means an aquifer that is bounded above and below by impermeable beds or by beds that have a distinctly lower permeability than that of the aquifer itself. It is an aquifer that contains confined groundwater.

    (mn) "Consolidation" means the transfer of containers of hazardous wastes between transport vehicles by a transporter during the course of transportation without the containers holding the wastes being opened and without the wastes being repackaged.

    (no) "Constituent" or "hazardous waste constituent" means a constituent that caused the administrator to list the hazardous waste in 40 C.F.R. part 261, subpart D, a constituent that is listed in table l of 40 C.F.R. §261.24, or a constituent that is listed in table 201, 202, or 205 of these rules.

    (op) "Construction permit" means a permit which is issued pursuant to part 111 of the act and which is for the construction of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility.

    (pq) "Consumer electronics" means devices operated by electricity that contain the circuit boards, liquid crystal display, or plasma display components in devices that are operated by electricity and are designed for general consumer use, many of which are commonly found in homes and  offices.  Examples of consumer electronics include computers, telephones, and printers.

    (qr) "Container" means any portable device in which a material is stored, transported, treated, disposed of, or otherwise handled.

    (rs) "Contingency plan" means a document that sets out an organized, planned, and coordinated course of action to be followed in case of a fire, explosion, or release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or the environment.

    (st) "Corrective action management unit" or "CAMU" means an area within a facility that is used only for managing remediation waste, in the case of grandfathered corrective action management units, or corrective action management unit-eligible waste, as further explained in R 299.9635(2) and (3), in implementing corrective action or cleanup at the facility.

    (i)      If the wastes are hazardous wastes found during a cleanup in intact or substantially intact containers, tanks, or other non-land-based units found above ground, unless the wastes are first placed in the tanks, containers or non-land-based units as part of the cleanup, or the containers or tanks are excavated during the course of the cleanup.

    (ii)        If the director, or the director's designee, uses the authority in R 299.9635 to prohibit the wastes from management in a corrective action management unit.

    (uv) "Corrosion expert" means a person who, by reason of his or her knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering and mathematics acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to engage in the practice of corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks. The person shall be certified as being qualified by the national association of corrosion engineers or be a registered professional engineer who has certification or

     

     

    licensing that includes education and experience in corrosion control on buried or submerged metal piping systems and metal tanks.

    (w)      "CRT collector" means a person who receives used, intact CRTs for recycling, repair, resale, or donation.

    (x)        "CRT glass manufacturer" means an operation or part of an operation that uses a furnace to manufacture CRT glass.

    (y)     "CRT processing" means conducting all of the following activities:

    (i)      Receiving broken or intact CRTs.

    (ii)      Intentionally breaking intact CRTs or further breaking or separating broken CRTs.

    (iii)      Sorting or otherwise managing glass removed from CRT monitors.

    (vz) "Designated facility" means a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility which has received a permit or has interim status pursuant to 40 C.F.R. parts 124 and 270 title II of the solid waste disposal act; which has a license, permit, or interim status from a state that is authorized pursuant to section 3006 of title II of the solid waste disposal act, which, if located in Michigan, has an operating license that is issued pursuant to part 111 of the act, has a legally binding agreement with the director that authorizes operation, or is subject to the requirements of section 23(4) and (5) of part 111 of the act; or which is regulated pursuant to R 299.9206(1)(c) or R 299.9803; and which has been designated on the manifest by the generator pursuant to R 299.9304. If the waste is destined for a facility in an authorized state that has not yet obtained authorization to regulate the particular waste as hazardous, then the designated facility shall be a facility that is allowed by the receiving state to accept the waste. A designated facility may also mean a generator site designated on the manifest to receive its waste as a return shipment from a facility that has rejected the waste in accordance with R 299.9608.

    (waa) "Destination facility" means a facility that treats, disposes of, or recycles a particular category of universal waste, except for the management activities described in 40 C.F.R. §§273.13(a) and (c) and 273.33(a) and (c). A facility at which a particular category of universal waste is only accumulated is not a destination facility for purposes of managing that category of universal waste.

    (xbb)  "Dike" means an embankment or ridge which consists of either natural or man-made materials and which is used to prevent the movement of liquids, sludges, solids, or other materials.

    (ycc)  "Dioxins and furans (D/F)" means tetra, penta, hexa, hepta, and octa-chlorinated dibenzo dioxins and furans.

    (zdd) "Director" means the director of the department of environmental quality.

    (aaee) "Discharge" or "hazardous waste discharge" means the accidental or intentional spilling, leaking, pumping, pouring, emitting, emptying, or dumping of hazardous waste into or on any land or water.  (bbff)  "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, dumping, spilling, leaking, or placing of any hazardous waste into or on land or water in such manner that the hazardous waste or a constituent of the hazardous waste might enter the environment, be emitted into the air, or discharged into water, including groundwater.

    (ccgg) "Disposal facility" means a facility or a part of a facility at which hazardous waste, as defined by these rules, is intentionally placed into or on any land or water and at which hazardous waste will remain after closure. The term "disposal facility" does not include a corrective action management unit into which remediation wastes are placed.

    (ddhh)   "Displacement" means the relative movement of any two sides of a fault measured in any direction.

    (eeii) "DOD" means the United States department of defense.

    (ffjj) "DOT" means the United States department of transportation.

    (ggkk) "Do-it-yourselfer used oil collection center" means any site or facility that accepts or aggregates and stores used oil collected only from household do-it-yourselfers.

     

     

    (hhll) "Drip pad" means an engineered structure which consists of a curbed, free-draining base, which is constructed of nonearthen materials, and which is designed to convey preservative kick-back or drippage from treated wood, precipitation, and surface water run-on to an associated collection system at wood preserving plants.

     

    R 299.9104 Definitions; G to I. Rule 104. As used in these rules:

    (a)      "Generator" means any person, by site, whose act or process produces hazardous waste identified or listed in part 2 of these rules or whose act first causes a hazardous waste to become subject to regulation.

    (b)       "Geologist" means a person who, by reason of his or her knowledge of geology, mathematics, and the physical and life sciences, acquired by education and experience, is equipped to practice geology.

    (c)      "Groundwater" means water below the land surface in a zone of saturation.

    (d)      "Hazardous waste" means a hazardous waste as defined in R 299.9203.

    (e)          "Hazardous waste fuel" means hazardous waste burned for energy recovery in any boiler or industrial furnace that is not regulated as an incinerator or fuel produced from hazardous waste for this purpose by processing, blending, or other treatment.

    (f)        "Hazardous waste management unit" means a contiguous area of land on or in which hazardous waste is placed or is the largest area in which there is a significant likelihood of mixing hazardous waste constituents in the same area. Examples of hazardous waste management units include all of the following:

    (i)      A surface impoundment.

    (ii)      A waste pile.

    (iii)      A land treatment area.

    (iv)      A landfill cell.

    (v)      An incinerator.

    (vi)      A tank and its associated piping and underlying containment system.

    (vii)          A container storage area.     A container alone does not constitute a unit.     The unit includes containers and the land or pad upon which they are placed.

    (viii)       A miscellaneous unit.

    (g)         "Hazardous waste number" means the code number that is used to identify a particular type of hazardous waste.

    (h)        "Holocene" means the most recent epoch of the quaternary period extending from the end of the Pleistocene to the present.

    (i)       "Home scrap metal  means scrap metal as generated by steel mills, foundries, and refineries such as turnings, cuttings, punchings, and borings.

    (j)        "Household do-it-yourselfer used oil" means oil that is derived from households, such as used oil generated by individuals through the maintenance of their personal vehicles.

    (k)         "Household do-it-yourselfer used oil generator" means an individual who generates household do-it-yourselfer used oil.

    (l)      "Import" means the act of bringing hazardous waste into the United States from a foreign country.

    (m)      "Inactive portion" means that portion of a facility that is not operated after November 19, 1980. (See also "active portion" and "closed portion.")

    (n)         "Inactive range” means a military range that is not currently being used, but that is still under military control and considered by the military to be a potential range area, and that has not been put to a new use that is incompatible with range activities.

    (o)      "Incinerator" means an enclosed device that satisfies either of the following criteria:

    (i)        Uses controlled flame combustion, does not meet the criteria for classification as a boiler, sludge dryer, or carbon regeneration unit, and is not listed as an industrial furnace.

     

     

    (ii)      Meets the definition of an infrared incinerator or plasma arc incinerator.

    (p)      "Incompatible waste" means a hazardous waste that is unsuitable for either of the following:

    (i)          Placement in a particular device or facility because it may cause  the corrosion  or decay of containment materials, for example, container inner liners or tank walls.

    (ii)             Commingling with another waste or material under uncontrolled conditions because the commingling might produce heat or pressure; fire or explosion; a violent reaction; toxic dusts, mists, fumes, or gases; or flammable fumes or gases. Examples of incompatible wastes are described in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, appendix V, and part 265, appendix V.

    (q)       "Individual generation site" means the contiguous site at or on which 1 or more hazardous wastes are generated. An individual generation site, such as a large manufacturing plant, may have 1 or more sources of hazardous waste, but is considered a single or individual generation site if the site or property is contiguous.

    (r)        "Industrial furnace" means any of the following enclosed devices that are integral components of manufacturing processes and that use thermal treatment to accomplish the recovery of materials or energy:

    (i)      Cement kilns.

    (ii)      Lime kilns.

    (iii)      Aggregate kilns.

    (iv)      Phosphate kilns.

    (v)      Coke ovens.

    (vi)      Blast furnaces.

    (vii)         Smelting, melting, and refining furnaces, including pyrometallurgical devices, such as cupolas, reverberator furnaces, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry furnaces.

    (viii)       Titanium dioxide chloride process oxidation reactors.

    (ix)      Methane reforming furnaces.

    (x)      Pulping liquor recovery furnaces.

    (xi)      Combustion devices that are used in the recovery of sulfur values from spent sulfuric acid.

    (xii)       Halogen acid furnaces for the production of acid from halogenated hazardous waste generated by chemical production facilities where the furnace is located on the site of a chemical production facility, the acid product has a halogen acid content of at least 3%, the acid product is used in a manufacturing process, and, except for hazardous waste burned as a fuel, hazardous waste fed to the furnace has a minimum halogen content of 20% as-generated.

    (xiii)       Other devices that the administrator may, after notice and comment, add to this subdivision on the basis of 1 or more of the following factors:

    (A)    The design and use of the device primarily to accomplish the recovery of material products.

    (B)    The use of the device to burn or reduce raw materials to make a material product.

    (C)        The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as effective substitutes for raw materials in processes using raw materials as principal feedstocks.

    (D)     The use of the device to burn or reduce secondary materials as ingredients in an industrial process to make a material product.

    (E)    The use of the device in common industrial practice to produce a material product.

    (F)     Other factors, as appropriate.

    (s)      "Infrared incinerator" means any enclosed device which uses electric powered resistance heaters as a source of radiant heat followed by an afterburner using controlled flame combustion and which is not listed as an industrial furnace.

    (t)       "In-ground tank" means a device which satisfies the definition of "tank" specified in R 299.9108(a) and which has a portion of its wall situated, to any degree, within the ground, thereby preventing visual inspection of the external surface area of the device that is in the ground.

     

     

    (u)      "Injection well" means a well into which fluids are injected. (See also "underground injection.")

    (v)        "Inner liner" means a continuous layer of material which is placed inside a tank or container and which protects the construction materials of the tank or container from the contained waste or reagents used to treat the waste.

    (w)      "In operation" means that a facility is treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous waste.

    (x)        "Installation inspector" means a person who, by reason of his or her knowledge of the physical sciences and the principles of engineering acquired by a professional education and related practical experience, is qualified to supervise the installation of tank systems.

    (y)       "International shipment" means the transportation of hazardous waste into or out of the jurisdiction of the United States.

     

    R 299.9105 Definitions; L to N. Rule 105. As used in these rules:

    (a)       "Land disposal" means placement in or on the land and includes, but is not limited to, placement in any of the following:

    (i)      A landfill.

    (ii)      A surface impoundment.

    (iii)      A waste pile.

    (iv)      An injection well.

    (v)      A land treatment facility.

    (vi)      A salt dome formation.

    (vii)       A salt bed formation.

    (viii)       An underground mine or cave.

    (ix)      A concrete vault or bunker intended for disposal purposes.

    The term also means placement in or on the land by means of open detonation and open burning where the residues continue to exhibit 1 or more of the characteristics of hazardous waste. The term "land disposal" does not include ocean disposal.

    (b)           "Land  disposal  restriction  treatment  standards"  means  the  treatment  standards  under 40 C.F.R. part 268 that a hazardous waste shall meet.

    (c)        "Landfill" means a disposal facility or part of a facility where hazardous waste is placed in or on land. The term does not include any of the following:

    (i)      A pile.

    (ii)      A land treatment facility.

    (iii)      A surface impoundment.

    (iv)      An underground injection well.

    (v)      A salt dome formation.

    (vi)      A salt bed formation.

    (vii)       An underground mine or cave.

    (viii)       A corrective action management unit.

    (d)       "Landfill cell" means a discrete volume of a hazardous waste landfill that uses a liner to provide isolation of wastes from adjacent cells or wastes. Examples of landfill cells are trenches and pits.

    (e)      "Land treatment facility" means a treatment facility or part of a treatment facility at which hazardous waste is applied onto or incorporated into the soil surface. Such facilities are disposal facilities if the waste will remain after closure.

    (f)      "Leachate" means any liquid, including any suspended components in the liquid, that has percolated through or drained from hazardous waste.

    (g)        "Leak detection system" means a system capable of detecting the failure of either the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous waste or accumulated liquid

     

     

    in the secondary containment structure. Such a system shall employ operational controls, such as daily visual inspections for releases into the secondary containment system or aboveground tanks, or consist of an interstitial monitoring device designed to continuously and automatically detect the failure of the primary or secondary containment structure or the presence of a release of hazardous waste into the secondary containment structure.

    (h)       "Lift" means a layer of placed materials, including a layer of compacted clay in a landfill liner or cap, or a layer of waste in a landfill.

    (i)        "Liner" means a continuous layer of natural or man-made materials beneath or on the sides of a surface impoundment, landfill, or landfill cell that restricts the downward or lateral escape of hazardous waste, hazardous waste constituents, or leachate.

    (j)         "Low-level mixed waste" or "LLMW" means a waste that contains both LLRW and hazardous waste.

    (k)      "Low-level radioactive waste" or "LLRW" means a radioactive waste which contains source, special nuclear, or byproduct materials, and which is not classified high-level radioactive waste, transuranic waste, spent nuclear fuel, or byproduct materials as defined in section 11.e(2) of the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended.

    (l)        "Management" or "hazardous waste management" means the systematic control of the collection, source separation, storage, transportation, processing, treatment, recovery, and disposal of hazardous waste.

    (m)       "Manifest" means the shipping document EPA Form 8700-22, including, if necessary, EPA Form 8700-22A, which is originated and signed by the generator or offeror in accordance with the instructions in the appendix to 40 C.F.R. part 262 and the applicable requirements of parts 3, 4, and 6 of these rules which contains the information required by R 299.9304.

    (n)        "Manifest document tracking number" means the alphanumeric site 2-digit identification number which is preprinted in item 4 of the manifest by a registered source assigned to the generator and a unique 5-digit document number assigned to the manifest by the generator for recording and reporting  purposes.

    (o)       "Method of treatment or disposal" means 1 of the major categories of treatment or disposal used for hazardous waste, including any of the following:

    (i)      Landfill.

    (ii)      Land treatment.

    (iii)      Thermal treatment.

    (iv)      Chemical treatment.

    (v)      Physical treatment.

    (vi)      Biological treatment.

    (p)      "Military" means the DOD, the armed services, coast guard, national guard, department of energy or other parties under contract or acting as agent for any of the parties, who handle military munitions.

    (q)        "Military munitions" means all ammunition products and components produced or used by or for the DOD or the United States armed services for national defense and security, including military munitions under the control of the DOD, the United States coast guard, the United States department of energy, and national guard personnel. The term military munitions includes any of the following: confined gaseous, liquid, and solid propellants, explosives, pyrotechnics, chemical and riot control agents, smokes, and incendiaries used by DOD components, including bulk explosives and chemical warfare agents, chemical munitions, rockets, guided and ballistic missiles, bombs, warheads, mortar rounds, artillery ammunitions, small arms ammunitions, grenades, mines, torpedoes, depth charges, cluster munitions and dispensers, demolitions charges, and devices and components thereof. Military munitions do not include wholly inert items, improvised explosive devices, and nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, and nuclear components thereof.  However, the term military munitions does include

     

     

    nonnuclear components of nuclear devices, managed under the department of energy's nuclear weapons program after all required sanitization operations under the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended, have been compiled.

    (r)        "Military range" means designated land and water areas set aside, managed, and used to conduct research on, develop, test, and evaluate military munitions and explosives, other ordnance, or weapon systems, or to train military personnel in their use and handling. Ranges include firing lines and positions, maneuver areas, firing lanes, test pads, detonation pads, impact areas, and buffer zones with restricted access and exclusionary areas.

    (s)       "Mining overburden returned to the mine site" means any material overlying an economic mineral deposit that is removed to gain access to the deposit and is then used for reclamation of a surface mine.

    (t)       "Miscellaneous unit" means a hazardous waste management unit where hazardous waste is treated, stored, or disposed of. The term does not include any of the following:

    (i)      A container.

    (ii)      A tank.

    (iii)      A surface impoundment.

    (iv)      A pile.

    (v)      A land treatment unit.

    (vi)      A landfill.

    (vii)       An incinerator.

    (viii)       A boiler.

    (ix)      An industrial furnace.

    (x)      An underground injection well with appropriate technical standards pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 146.

    (xi)      A unit that is eligible for a temporary operating license for research pursuant to R 299.9501.

    (xii)       A corrective action management unit.

    (xiii)       A staging pile.

    (u)      "Movement" means that hazardous waste transported to a facility in an individual vehicle.

    (v)        "Mixed waste" means a waste that contains both hazardous waste and source, special nuclear, or byproduct material subject to the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended.

    (w)            "Naturally occurring and/or accelerator-produced radioactive material" or "NARM" means radioactive material that is regulated by a state under state law, or by the United States department of energy, as authorized by the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended, under department of energy orders, and meets either of the following requirements:

    (i)        Is radioactive material that is naturally occurring and is not source, special nuclear, or byproduct material as defined by the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended.

    (ii)      Is radioactive material that is produced by an accelerator.

    (x)      "New tank system" or "new tank component" means a tank system or component that will be used for the storage or treatment of hazardous waste and for which installation has commenced after July 14, 1986. For purposes of 40 C.F.R. §§264.193(g)(2) and 265.193(g)(2), a new tank system is one for which construction commences after July 14, 1986.

    (y)     "NFPA" means the national fire protection association.

    (z)     "NRC" means the United States nuclear regulatory commission.

    (aa) "NRC license" or "NRC agreement state license" means a license issued by the NRC, or NRC agreement state, to users that manage radionuclides regulated by the NRC, or NRC agreement states, under the authority of the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended.

     

    R 299.9203 "Hazardous waste" explained.

    Rule 203. (1)   A waste, as explained in R 299.9202, is a hazardous waste if it is not excluded from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204(1) or (2) and if it meets any of the following criteria:

     

     

    (a)      It exhibits any of the characteristics of hazardous waste identified in R 299.9212.

    (b)         It is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 and has not been excluded from the lists pursuant to R 299.9211.

    (c)          It is a mixture of a waste and 1 or more hazardous wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 and has not been excluded from this subdivision pursuant to R 299.9211 or subrules (7) or

    (8)    of this rule; however, mixtures of wastes and hazardous wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 and R 299.9214 are not hazardous wastes, except by application of subdivision (a) or (b) of this subrule, if the generator can demonstrate that the mixture consists of wastewater which, with respect to discharge, is subject to regulation pursuant to either section 402 or section 307(b) of the federal clean water act, including wastewater at facilities that have eliminated the discharge of wastewater, and is 1 of the following:

    (i)        One or more of the following spent solvents that are listed in R 299.9213, if the maximum total weekly usage of the solvents, other than the amounts that can be demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater, divided by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment system is not more than 1 part per million or the total measured concentration of these solvents entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system, at facilities subject to regulation under parts 60, 61, or 63 of the federal clean air act or at facilities subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minizmizes fugitive emissions, is not more than 1 part per million on an average weekly basis:

    (A)    Carbon tetrachloride.

    (B)    Tetrachloroethylene.

    (C)    Trichloroethylene.

    (D)    Benzene.

    (E)      Scrubber waters derived from the combustion of the spent solvents listed in subparagraphs (A) to

    (D) of this paragraph.

    Any facility that uses benzene as a solvent and claims this exemption shall use an aerated biological wastewater treatment system and only lined surface impoundments or tanks before secondary clarification in the wastewater treatment system. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis plan if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility shall  be eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if the director finds that the sampling and analysis plan does not include the required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the director shall notify the facility that it must cease the use of the direct monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

    (ii)        One or more of the following spent solvents that are listed in R 299.9213, if the maximum total weekly usage of the solvents, other than the amounts that can be demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater, divided by the average weekly flow of wastewater into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment system is not more than 25 parts per million or the total measured concentration of these solvents entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system, at facilities subject to regulation under parts 60, 61, or 63 of the federal clean air act or at facilities subject to an enforceable limit in a federal operating permit that minizmizes fugitive emissions, is not more than 25 parts per million on an average weekly basis:

    (A)    Methylene chloride.

     

     

    (B)    1,1,1-Trichloroethane.

    (C)    Chlorobenzene.

    (D)    o-dichlorobenzene.

    (E)    Cresols.

    (F)     Cresylic acid.

    (G)    Nitrobenzene.

    (H)    Toluene.

    (I)    Methyl ethyl ketone.

    (J)     Carbon disulfide.

    (K)    Isobutanol.

    (L)    Pyridine.

    (M)     Spent chlorofluorocarbon solvents.

    (N)    2-ethoxyethanol.

    (O)      Scrubber waters derived from the combustion of the spent solvents listed in subparagraphs (A) to

    (N) of this paragraph.

    Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis plan if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility shall be eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if the director finds that the sampling and analysis plan does not include the required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the director shall notify the facility that it must cease the use of the direct monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

    (iii)       One or more of the following wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 if the wastes are discharged to the refinery oil recovery sewer before primary oil/water/solids separation.

    (A)    Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry, K050.

    (B)    Crude oil storage tank sediment from petroleum refining operations, K169.

    (C)         Clarified  slurry  oil  tank  sediment  or  in-line  filter/separation  solids  from  petroleum  refining operations, K170.

    (D)    Spent hydrotreating catalyst, K171.

    (E)    Spent hydrorefining catalyst, K172.

    (iv)         A discarded harzardous waste, commercial chemical product, or chemical intermediate listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, arising from de minimis losses of the materials from manufacturing operations in which the materials are used as raw materials or are produced in the manufacturing process. For the purpose of this paragraph, de minimis losses include are inadvertent releases to a wastewater treatment system, including any of the following:

    (A)      Losses from normal material handling operations, such as spills from the unloading or transfer of materials from bins or other containers or leaks from pipes, valves, or other devices that are used to transfer materials.

    (B)    Minor leaks of process equipment, storage tanks, or containers.

    (C)    Leaks from well-maintained pump packings and seals.

    (D)    Sample purgings.

    (E)    Relief device discharges.

    (F)     Discharges from safety showers and the rinsing and cleaning of personal safety equipment.

     

     

    (G)    Rinsate from empty containers or from containers that are rendered empty by that rinsing.

    Any manufacturing facility that claims an exemption for de minimis quantities of wastes listed in R 299.9214, or any nonmanufacturing facility that claims an exemption for deminimis quantities of wastes listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 shall either have eliminated the discharge of wastewaters or have included in its federal clean water act permit application or submission to its pretreatment control authority the constituents for which  each waste was listed in accordance with 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VII, and the constituents identified in 40 C.F.R. §268.40 for which each waste has a treatment standard. A facility shall be eligible to claim the exemption once notification of the possible deminimis releases have been provided via the clean water act permit application or the pretreatment control authority submission. A copy of the federal clean water act permit application or the submission to the pretreatment control authority shall be placed in the facility's on-site files.

    (v)       Wastewater which results from laboratory operations and which contains toxic (T) wastes listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 if the annualized average flow of laboratory wastewater is not more than 1% of total wastewater flow into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment system or if the wastes' combined annualized average concentration is not more than 1 part per million in the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment or pretreatment facility. Toxic (T) wastes which are used in laboratories and which are demonstrated not to be discharged to wastewater shall not be included in the calculation.

    (vi)         Wastewater from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K157, if the maximum weekly usage of formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine, including all amounts that cannot be demonstrated to be reacted in the process, destroyed through treatment, or recovered, divided by the average weekly flow of process wastewater before any dilutions into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system is not more than a total of 5 parts per million by weight or the total measured concentration of these chemicals entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system is not more than 5 parts per million on an average weekly basis. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis plan if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility shall be eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the sampling and analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if the director finds that the sampling and analysis plan does not include the required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the director shall notify the facility that it must cease the use of the direct monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

    (vii)       Wastewater derived from the treatment of organic waste from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K156, if the maximum concentration of formaldehyde, methyl chloride, methylene chloride, and triethylamine before any dilutions into the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system is not more than a total of 5 milligrams per liter or the total measured concentration of these chemicals entering the headworks of the facility's wastewater treatment system is not more than 5 milligrams per liter on an average weekly basis. Facilities that choose to measure concentration levels shall file a copy of their sampling and analysis plan with the director. A facility shall file a revised sampling and analysis plan if the initial plan is rendered inaccurate by changes in the facility's operations. The sampling and analysis plan shall include the monitoring point location at the headworks, the sampling frequency and methodology, and a list of constituents to be monitored. A facility shall be eligible for the direct monitoring option once they receive confirmation that the

     

     

    sampling and analysis plan has been received by the director. The director may reject the sampling and analysis plan if the director finds that the sampling and analysis plan does not include the required information or the plan parameters do not enable the facility to calculate the weekly average concentration of these chemicals accurately. If the director rejects the sampling and analysis plan or finds that the facility is not following the sampling and analysis plan, the director shall notify the facility that it must cease the use of the direct monitoring option until the bases for the rejection are corrected.

    (d)        It is a mixture of a waste and a hazardous waste that meets the characteristic of severe toxicity pursuant to R 299.9212(5).

    (e)       It is a used oil that contains more than 1,000 parts per million total halogens. Used oil that contains more than 1,000 parts per million is presumed to be a hazardous waste and is regulated as such under part 111 of the act and these rules. A person may rebut the presumption by demonstrating that the used oil does not contain hazardous waste. The demonstration may be made by showing that the used oil does not contain significant concentrations of halogenated hazardous constituents that are listed in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII. The rebuttable presumption rule does not apply to the following materials:

    (i)         Metalworking oils or fluids that contain chlorinated paraffins if the oils or fluids are processed through a tolling agreement as specified in 40 C.F.R. §279.24(c) to reclaim the oils or fluids. The rebuttable presumption does apply, however, if the oils or fluids are recycled in any other manner or are disposed of.

    (ii)           Used oils that are contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons which have been removed from refrigeration units if the chlorofluorocarbons are destined for reclamation. The rebuttable presumption does apply, however, if the used oils are contaminated with chlorofluorocarbons that have been mixed with used oil from sources other than refrigeration units.

    (2)     A waste that is not excluded from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204(1) or (2) becomes a hazardous waste when any of the following events occur:

    (a)        In the case of a waste that is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, when the waste first meets the listing description.

    (b)       In the case of a mixture of waste and one or more listed hazardous wastes or severely toxic wastes, when a waste that is hazardous pursuant to R 299.9212(5), R 299.9213, or R 299.9214 is first added to the waste.

    (c)         In the case of any other waste, including a waste mixture, when the waste exhibits any of the characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

    (3)      Unless and until it meets the criteria of subrule (5) of this rule, a hazardous waste will remain a hazardous waste, and, except as provided in subrules (4), (7), and (8) of this rule, any waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, including any sludge, spill residue, ash, emission control dust, or leachate, but not including precipitation runoff, is a hazardous waste. Materials that are reclaimed from wastes and that are used beneficially are not wastes and hence are not hazardous wastes pursuant to this subrule, unless the reclaimed material is burned for energy recovery or used in a manner that constitutes disposal.

    (4)      All of the following wastes are not hazardous even though they are generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste, unless they exhibit 1 or more of the characteristics of hazardous waste:

    (a)       Waste pickle liquor sludge generated by lime stabilization of spent pickle liquor from the iron and steel industry, as defined by standard industrial codes 331 and 332 in the office of management and budget document entitled "Standard Industrial Classification Manual."

    (b)      Wastes from burning any of the materials exempted from regulation by R 299.9206(3)(c) to (f).

    (c)           Nonwastewater residues, such as slag, which result from high temperature metals recovery processing of K061, K062, or F006 waste in units identified as rotary kilns, flame reactors, electric

     

     

    furnaces, plasma arc furnaces, slag reactors, rotary hearth furnace/electric furnace combinations, or industrial furnaces and which are disposed of in units regulated under part 115 of the act, if the residues are in compliance with the specified generic exclusion levels. Testing requirements shall be incorporated in a facility's waste analysis plan or generator's self-implementing waste analysis plan.  At a minimum, samples of residues shall be collected and analyzed quarterly or when the process or operation generating the waste changes. A person who claims this exclusion in an enforcement action shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements:

    (i)      For K061 and K062 nonwastewater high temperature metals recovery residues, the specified generic exclusion levels are as follows:

    (A)    Antimony, 0.10 mg/l.

    (B)    Arsenic, 0.50 mg/l.

    (C)    Barium, 7.6 mg/l.

    (D)    Beryllium, 0.010 mg/l.

    (E)    Cadmium, 0.050 mg/l.

    (F)     Chromium (total), 0.33 mg/l.

    (G)    Lead, 0.15 mg/l.

    (H)    Mercury, 0.009 mg/l.

    (I)    Nickel, 1.0 mg/l.

    (J)     Selenium, 0.16 mg/l.

    (K)    Silver, 0.30 mg/l.

    (L)    Thallium, 0.020 mg/l.

    (M)     Zinc, 70 mg/l.

    (ii)      For F006 nonwastewater high temperature metals recovery residues, the specified generic exclusion levels are as follows:

    (A)    Antimony, 0.10 mg/l.

    (B)    Arsenic, 0.50 mg/l.

    (C)    Barium, 7.6 mg/l.

    (D)    Beryllium, 0.010 mg/l.

    (E)    Cadmium, 0.050 mg/l.

    (F)     Chromium (total), 0.33 mg/l.

    (G)    Cyanide (total), 1.8 mg/kg.

    (H)    Lead, 0.15 mg/l.

    (I)    Mercury, 0.009 mg/l.

    (J)     Nickel, 1.0 mg/l.

    (K)    Selenium, 0.16 mg/l.

    (L)    Silver, 0.30 mg/l.

    (M)     Thallium, 0.020 mg/l.

    (N)    Zinc, 70 mg/l.

    (iii)         For nonwastewater residues resulting from the high temperature metals recovery processing of KO61, K062, or F006 waste which meet the generic exclusion levels specified in this subdivision and which do not exhibit any hazardous waste characteristic, and which are sent to a unit regulated under part 115 of the act, the person claiming the exclusion shall send a 1-time notification and certification to the director. The notification and certification shall be in compliance with all of the  following provisions:

    (A)    The notification and certification shall be maintained at the facility.

    (B)       The notification and certification shall be updated by the person claiming the exclusion if the process or operation generating the waste changes or if the unit regulated under part 115 of the act that

     

     

    is receiving the waste changes. However, the director need only be notified on an annual basis, by the end of the calendar year, if a change occurs.

    (C)    The notification shall include all of the following information:

    (1)       The name and address of the unit regulated under part 115 of the act that is receiving the waste shipment.

    (2)     The site identification number and treatability group of the waste at the initial point of generation.

    (3)     The treatment standards applicable to the waste at the initial point of generation.

    (D)      The certification shall be signed by an authorized representative and shall include the following statement: "I certify under penalty of law that the generic exclusion levels for all constituents have been met without impermissible dilution and that no characteristic of hazardous waste is exhibited. I am aware that there are significant penalties for submitting a false certification, including the possibility of fine and imprisonment."

    (d)      Biological treatment sludge from the treatment of organic wastes from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K156, or wastewaters from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes, K157.

    (e)       Catalyst inert support media separated from 1 or more either or both of the following wastes listed in R 299.9213:

    (i)      Spent hydrotreating catalyst, K171.

    (ii)      Spent hydrorefining catalyst, K172.

    (5)     Any waste that is described in subrule (3) of this rule is not a hazardous waste if it is in compliance with the following criteria, as applicable:

    (a)        In the case of any waste, it does not exhibit any of the characteristics of hazardous waste that are identified in R 299.9212. However, a waste that exhibits a characteristic at the point of generation may still be subject to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 268, even if the waste does not exhibit a characteristic at the point of land disposal.

    (b)       In the case of a waste which is listed in R 299.9212(5), R 299.9213, or R 299.9214, which contains a waste that is listed in these rules, or which is derived from a waste that is listed in these rules, the waste also has been excluded from regulation pursuant to R 299.9211.

    (6)      Notwithstanding subrules (1) to (5) of this rule and if the debris, as defined in 40 C.F.R. part 268, does not exhibit a hazardous characteristic identified in R 299.9212, the following materials are not subject to regulation under part 111 of the act and these rules, except for R 299.9809 to R 299.9816:

    (a)      Hazardous debris that has been treated using 1 of the required extraction or destruction technologies specified in table 1 of 40 C.F.R. §268.45. A person who claims this exclusion in an enforcement action shall have the burden of proving, by clear and convincing evidence, that the material meets all of the exclusion requirements.

    (b)         Debris that the director, considering the extent of contamination, has determined is no longer contaminated with hazardous waste.

    (7)      A hazardous waste that is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it exhibits 1 or more characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity, as defined under R 299.9212, is not a hazardous waste, if the waste no longer exhibits any characteristic of hazardous waste identified in R 299.9212. However, the waste remains subject to 40 C.F.R. part 268, as applicable, even if the waste no longer exhibits a characteristic at the point of land disposal. This exclusion is limited to any of the following:

    (a)       A mixture of a waste and a hazardous waste listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it exhibits 1 or more characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity which is generated as a result of a cleanup conducted at the individual site of generation pursuant to part 31, part 111, part 201, part 213, or CERCLA.

    (b)          A waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of a hazardous waste listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it exhibits the characteristic of ignitability.

     

     

    (c)      A mixture of a waste excluded from regulation under R 299.9204(2)(h) and a hazardous waste listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 solely because it exhibits 1 or more of the characteristics of ignitability, corrosivity, or reactivity which is generated as a result of a cleanup conducted at the individual site of generation pursuant to part 31, part 111, part 201, part 213, or CERCLA.

    (8)      Hazardous waste that contains radioactive waste is no longer a hazardous waste when it meets the eligibility criteria and conditions of R 299.9822 and R 299.9823. This exclusion is limited to either of the following:

    (a)      A mixture of a waste and an eligible radioactive mixed waste.

    (b)      A waste generated from the treatment, storage, or disposal of an eligible radioactive mixed waste.

    (9)   The office of management and budget document entitled "Standard Industrial Classification Manual" is adopted by reference in R 299.11007.

     

    R 299.9204 Exclusions.

    Rule 204. (1) The following materials are not wastes for the purpose of part 111 of the act and these rules:

    (a)      Domestic sewage and any mixture of domestic sewage and other wastes that passes through a sewer system to a publicly owned treatment works for treatment. Domestic sewage means untreated sanitary wastes that pass through a sewer system.

    (b)        Industrial wastewater discharges that are point source discharges subject to regulation pursuant to section 402 of the federal clean water act, as amended, except for discharges to injection wells.

    (c)      Irrigation return flows.

    (d)        Source, special nuclear, or by-product material as defined by the atomic energy act of 1954, as amended, 42 U.S.C. §2011 et seq.

    (e)        Materials which are subjected to in-situ mining techniques and which are not removed from the ground as part of the extraction process.

    (f)         Pulping liquors that are reclaimed in a pulping liquor recovery furnace and then reused in the pulping process, unless the liquors are accumulated speculatively, as defined in R 299.9107.

    (g)       Spent sulfuric acid that is used to produce virgin sulfuric acid, unless the spent acid is accumulated speculatively, as defined in R 299.9107.

    (h)        Secondary materials that are reclaimed and returned to the original process or processes in which they were generated and where they are reused in the production process, if all of the following provisions apply:

    (i)      Only tank storage is involved, and the entire process through completion of reclamation is closed by being entirely connected with pipes or other comparable enclosed means of conveyance.

    (ii)       The reclamation does not involve controlled flame combustion, such as occurs in boilers, industrial furnaces, or incinerators.

    (iii)       The secondary materials are not accumulated in such tanks for more than 12 months without being reclaimed.

    (iv)        The reclaimed material is not used to produce a fuel and is not used to produce products that are used in a manner that constitutes disposal.

    (i)       Spent wood preserving solutions which have been reclaimed and which are reused for their original intended purpose.

    (j)      Wastewaters from the wood preserving process which have been reclaimed and which are reused to treat wood.

    (k)         Nonwastewater splash condenser dross residue from the treatment of K061 in high temperature metals recovery units, if the residue, if shipped, is shipped, in containers and is not land disposed before recovery.

     

     

    (l)        Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials such as sludges, by-products, and spent materials, that are generated at a petroleum refinery (SIC code 2911) and are inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911), including distillation, catalytic cracking, fractionation, or thermal cracking units, unless the material is placed on the land, or accumulated speculatively before being so recycled. Materials inserted into thermal cracking units are excluded under this subdivision if the coke product does not exhibit a characteristic of a hazardous waste. Oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials may be inserted into the same petroleum refinery where they are generated, or sent directly to another refinery, and still be excluded under this subdivision. Except as provided for in subdivision (m) of this subrule, oil-bearing hazardous secondary materials generated elsewhere in the petroleum industry are not excluded under  this subdivision. Residuals generated from processing or recycling materials excluded under this subdivision, where such materials as generated would have otherwise met a listing under R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, are designated as F037 wastes when disposed of or intended for disposal.

    (m)        Recovered oil that is recycled in the same manner and with the same conditions as described in subdivision (l) of this subrule. Recovered oil is oil that has been reclaimed from secondary materials, including wastewater, generated from normal petroleum industry practices, including refining, exploration and production, bulk storage, and transportation incident thereto (SIC codes 1311, 1321, 1381, 1382, 1389, 2911, 4612, 4613, 4789, 4922, 4923, 5171, and 5172). Recovered oil does not include oil-bearing hazardous wastes listed in part 2 of these rules. However, oil recovered from oil- bearing hazardous wastes listed in part 2 of these rules may be considered recovered oil. Recovered oil also does not include used oil as defined in R 299.9109.

    (n)      EPA hazardous waste numbers K060, K087, K141, K142, K143, K144, K145, K147, and K148 and any wastes from the coke by-products processes that are hazardous only because they exhibit the toxicity characteristic specified in R 299.9212 when, after generation, the materials are recycled to coke ovens or to the tar recovery process as a feedstock to produce coal tar or are mixed with coal tar before the tar's sale or refining. This exclusion is conditioned on there being no land disposal of the wastes from the point that the wastes are generated to the point that they are recycled to coke ovens or tar recovery or refining processes or are mixed with coal tar.

    (o)       Materials which are reclaimed from used oil and which are used beneficially if the materials are not burned for energy recovery or used in a manner that constitutes disposal of the materials.

    (p)      Excluded scrap metal that is being recycled.

    (q)      Shredded circuit boards that are being recycled if both of the following requirements are met:

    (i)           The shredded circuit boards are stored in containers sufficient to prevent a release to the environment before recovery.

    (ii)         The shredded circuit boards are free of mercury switches, mercury relays, and nickel-cadmium batteries and lithium batteries.

    (r)      Condensates derived from the overhead gases from kraft mill steam strippers that are used to comply with 40 C.F.R. §63.446(e). This exemption applies only to combustion at the mill generating the condensates.

    (s)       Petrochemical recovered oil from an associated organic chemical manufacturing facility, where the oil is to be inserted into the petroleum refining process (SIC code 2911) along with normal petroleum refinery process streams, provided both the following requirements are met:

    (i)          The oil  is  hazardous  only  because  it  exhibits  the  characteristic  of  ignitability  as  defined  in R 299.9212 or toxicity for benzene as defined in R 299.9212 and R 299.9217.

    (ii)          The oil generated by the organic chemical manufacturing facility is not placed on the land or speculatively accumulated before being recycled into the petroleum refining process.

     

     

    (t)        Spent caustic solutions from petroleum refining liquid treating processes used as a feedstock to produce cresylic or naphthenic acid unless the material is placed on the land or speculatively accumulated.

    (u)        Before reuse, the wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions described in subdivisions (i) and (j) of this subrule if all of the following requirements are met:

    (v)        The wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions are reused on site at water borne plants in the production process for their original intended use.

    (ii)       Before reuse, the wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions are managed to prevent releases to either the land or groundwater or both.

    (iii)       Units used to manage wastewaters or spent wood preserving solutions before reuse can be visually or otherwise determined to prevent releases to either land or groundwater.

    (iv)       Drip pads used to manage the wastewaters or spent wood preserving solutions before reuse are in compliance with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart W regardless of whether the plant generates a total of less than 1,000 kilograms per month of hazardous waste.

    (v)        Before operating pursuant to this exclusion, the plant owner or operator complies with all of the following requirements otherwise the exclusion shall not apply:

    (A)        Submits a 1-time notification to the director stating that the plant intends to claim the exclusion, giving the date on which the plant intends to begin operating under the exclusion, and containing the following language: "I have read the applicable regulation establishing an exclusion for wood preserving wastewaters and spent wood preserving solutions and understand it requires me to comply at all times with the conditions set out in the regulations."

    (B)            The owner or operator maintains a copy of the 1-time notification required pursuant to subparagraph (v) of this subdivision in its on-site records until closure of the facility for a period of not less than 3 years from the date specified in the notice.

    (C)     If the plant voids the exclusion by not complying with the exclusion conditions and wishes to have its wastes excluded again, it shall apply to the director for reinstatement. The director may reinstate the exclusion upon finding that the plant has returned to compliance with all of the conditions and that violations are not likely to recur.

    (v) Spent materials, other than hazardous waste listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, that are generated within the primary mineral processing industry from which minerals, acids, cyanide, water, or other values are recovered by mineral processing or by beneficiation if all of the following requirements are met:

    (i)              The  spent   material   is   legitimately   recycled  to   recover minerals,   acids,   cyanide,   water, or other values.

    (ii)      The spent material is not speculatively accumulated.

    (iii)        Except as provided under paragraph (iv) of this subdivision, the spent material is stored in tanks, containers, or buildings which meet the following requirements as applicable:

    (A)    If using a building, the building shall be an engineered structure with a floor, walls, and a roof all of which are made of non-earthen materials providing structural support, except smelter buildings which may have partially earthen floors provided that the spent material is stored on the non-earthen portion, have a roof which is suitable for diverting rainwater away from the foundation, and be designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the material to the environment.

    (B)     If using a tank, the tank shall be free standing, not meet the definition of a surface impoundment, be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents, be operated in a manner which controls fugitive dust if the tank contains any particulate which may be subject to wind dispersal, and be designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the material to the environment.

    (C)     If using a container, the container shall be free standing and be manufactured of a material suitable for containment of its contents, be operated in a manner which controls fugitive dust if the container

     

     

    contains any particulate which may be subject to wind dispersal, and be designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the material to the environment.

    (iv)      The spent materials are placed on pads if all of the following requirements are met:

    (A)    The solid mineral processing spent materials do not contain any free liquid.

    (B)     The pad is designed, constructed, and operated to prevent significant releases of the spent material into the environment.

    (C)      The pad provides the same degree of containment afforded by non-RCRA tanks, containers, and buildings eligible for this exclusion.

    (D)       The pad is designed of non-earthen material that is compatible with the chemical nature of the mineral processing spent material.

    (E)    The pad is capable of withstanding physical stresses associated with placement and removal.

    (F)     The pad has run-on/run-off controls.

    (G)    The pad is operated in a manner which controls fugitive dust.

    (H)    The integrity of the pad is ensured through inspections and maintenance programs.

    (I)         The director makes a site-specific determination that the materials  may  be  placed  on  a  pad rather than in tanks, containers, or buildings. In making such a determination,  the  director shall consider whether storage on a pad poses the potential for significant releases via groundwater, surface water, and air exposure pathways. When assessing the groundwater, surface water, and air exposure pathways, the director shall consider the volume and physical and chemical properties of the spent material, including its potential for migration off of the pad, the potential for human or environmental exposure to hazardous constituents migrating from the pad via each exposure pathway, and the possibility and extent of harm to human and environmental receptors via each exposure pathway. Before making such a determination, the director shall provide notice and the opportunity for comment to all persons potentially interested in the determination. Notice may be accomplished by placing notice of the action in major local newspapers or broadcasting notice over local radio stations.

    (v)       The owner or operator provides notice to the director which provides the following information and is updated when there is a change in the type of materials recycled or the location of the recycling process:

    (A)    The types of materials to be recycled.

    (B)    The type and location of storage units and recycling processes.

    (C)    The annual quantities expected to be placed in land-based units.

    (vi)       For the purposes of the exclusion under R 299.9204(2)(h), mineral processing spent materials shall be the result of mineral processing and may not include any hazardous wastes listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.9214. Listed hazardous wastes and characteristic hazardous waste generated by non-mineral processing industries are not eligible for the conditional exclusion from the definition of waste.

    (w)    Comparable fuels or comparable syngas fuels that meet the requirements of R 299.9230.

    (x)  Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc fertilizers, if the following conditions are

    met:


    (x)      Hazardous secondary materials used to make zinc micronutrient fertilizers shall not be

    accumulated speculatively.

    (ii)      Generators and intermediate handlers of zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials that are to be incorporated into zinc fertilizers shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (A)          Submit a 1-time notice to the director which contains the name, address, and site identification number of the generator or intermediate handler facility, provides a brief description of the secondary material that will be subject to the exclusion, and identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded, zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials under the conditions of this subdivision.

     

     

    (B)     Store the excluded secondary material in buildings, tanks, or containers that are constructed and maintained in a way that prevents releases of the secondary materials into the environment. At a minimum, any building used for this purpose shall be an engineered structure made of non-earthen materials that provide structural support, and shall have a floor, walls, and a roof that prevent wind dispersal and contact with rainwater. Tanks used for this purpose shall be structurally sound and, if outdoors, shall have roofs or covers that prevent contact with wind and rain. Containers that are used for this purpose shall be kept closed except when it is necessary to add or remove material, and shall be in sound condition. Containers that are stored outdoors shall be managed within storage areas that have containment structures or systems sufficiently impervious to contain leaks, spills, and accumulated precipitation; provide for effective drainage and removal of leaks, spills, and accumulated precipitation; and prevent run-on into the containment system.

    (C)       With each off-site shipment of excluded hazardous secondary materials, provide written notice to the receiving facility that the material is subject to the conditions of this subdivision.

    (D)     Maintain at the generator's or intermediate handler's facility for no less than 3 years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials. At a minimum, the records for each shipment shall include the name of the transporter, the date of the shipment, the name and address of the facility that received the excluded material, documentation confirming receipt of the shipment, and the type and quantity of excluded secondary material in each shipment.

    (iii)            Manufacturers of zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients made from excluded hazardous secondary materials shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (A)        Store excluded hazardous secondary material pursuant to the storage requirements for generators and intermediate handlers, as specified in paragraph (ii) of this subdivision.

    (B)       Submit a 1-time notification to the director which contains the name, address, and site identification number of the manufacturing facility and identifies when the manufacturer intends to begin managing excluded, zinc-bearing hazardous secondary materials under the conditions of this subdivision.

    (C)     Maintain for no less than 3 years records of all shipments of excluded hazardous secondary materials received by the manufacturer. At a minimum, the records for each shipment shall include the name and address of the generating facility, the name of the transporter, the date the materials were received, the quantity of materials received, and a brief description of the industrial process that generated the material.

    (D)     Submit to the director an annual report which identifies the total quantities of all excluded hazardous secondary materials that were used to manufacture zinc fertilizers or zinc fertilizer ingredients in the previous year, the name and address of each generating facility, and the industrial process from which they were generated.

    (iv)       Nothing in this subdivision preempts, overrides, or otherwise negates the requirements of R 299.9302 which requires any person who generates a waste to determine if the waste is a hazardous waste.

    (v)         Interim status and licensed storage units that have been used to store only zinc-bearing hazardous wastes before the submission of the 1-time notice described in paragraph (ii) of this subdivision, and that afterward will be used only to store hazardous secondary materials excluded under this subdivision, are not subject to the closure requirements of part 6 of these rules.

    (y)       Zinc fertilizers made from hazardous wastes, or hazardous secondary materials that are excluded under subdivision (x) of this subrule, provided that the following conditions are met:

    (i)      The fertilizers meet the following contaminant limits, established as the maximum allowable total concentration in fertilizer per 1% of zinc, for metal contaminants:

    (A)    Arsenic, 0.3 parts per million.

    (B)    Cadmium, 1.4 parts per million.

     

     

    (C)    Chromium, 0.6 parts per million.

    (D)    Lead, 2.8 parts per million.

    (E)    Mercury, 0.3 parts per million.

    (ii)       The fertilizers meet the contaminant limit for dioxin contaminants of not more than 8 parts per trillion of dioxin, measured as toxic equivalent.

    (iii)         The manufacturer performs sampling and analysis of the fertilizer product to determine compliance with the contaminant limits for metals not less than every 6 months, and for dioxins not less than every 12 months. Testing shall also be performed whenever changes occur to manufacturing processes or ingredients that could significantly affect the amounts of contaminants in the fertilizer product. The manufacturer may use any reliable analytical methods to demonstrate that no constituent of concern is present in the product at concentrations above the applicable limits. It is the responsibility of the manufacturer to ensure that the sampling and analysis are unbiased, precise, and representative of the products introduced into commerce.

    (iv)        The manufacturer maintains for not less than 3 years records of all sampling and analysis performed for the purposes of determining compliance with the requirements of paragraph (iii) of this subdivision. At a minimum, such records shall include all of the following:

    (A)    The dates and times product samples were taken, and the dates the samples were analyzed.

    (B)    The names and qualifications of the persons taking the samples.

    (C)    A description of the methods and equipment used to take the samples.

    (D)       The name and address of the laboratory facility at which analyses of the samples were performed.

    (E)     A description of the analytical methods used, including any cleanup and sample preparation methods.

    (F)      All laboratory analytical results used to determine compliance with the contaminant limits specified in paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this subdivision.

    (z)     Used CRTs that meet any of the following requirements:

    (i)          Used, intact CRTs unless they are disposed or are speculatively accumulated by CRT collectors or glass processors.

    (ii)           Used,  intact  CRTs  when  exported  for  recycling  if  they  meet  the  requirements  of  R 299.9231(5).

    (iii)      Used, broken CRTs if they meet the requirements of R 299.9231(1) and (2).

    (iv)      Glass removed from CRTs if it meets the requirements of R 299.9231(3).

    (2)      The following wastes are not hazardous wastes for the purposes of part 111 of the act and these rules:

    (a)        Household waste, including household waste that has been collected, transported, stored, treated, disposed of, recovered, or reused. Household waste means any waste material, including garbage, trash, and sanitary wastes in septic tanks, that is derived from households, including single and multiple residences, hotels and motels, bunkhouses, ranger stations, crew quarters, campgrounds, picnic grounds, and day-use recreation areas. A resource recovery facility that manages municipal waste shall not be deemed to be treating, storing, disposing of, or otherwise managing hazardous wastes for the purposes of regulation pursuant to these rules if the facility is in compliance with both of the  following provisions:

    (i)       Receives and burns only household waste from single and multiple dwellings, hotels, motels, and other residential sources and waste from commercial or industrial sources that does not contain hazardous waste.

    (ii)          Does not accept hazardous wastes and the owner or operator of the facility has established contractual requirements or other appropriate notification or inspection procedures to assure that hazardous wastes are not received at or burned in the facility.

     

     

    (b)          Wastes which are generated by either of the following and which are returned to the soil as fertilizers:

    (i)      The growing and harvesting of agricultural crops.

    (ii)      The raising of animals, including animal manures.

    (c)      Mining overburden that is returned to the mine site.

    (d)       Fly ash waste, bottom ash waste, slag waste, and flue gas emission control waste that is generated primarily from the combustion of coal or other fossil fuels, except as provided by 40 C.F.R. §266.112 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.

    (e)           Drilling  fluids,  produced  waters,  and  other  wastes  that  are  associated  with  the  exploration, development, or production of crude oil, natural gas, or geothermal energy.

    (f)       Wastes which fail the test for the toxicity characteristic because chromium is present or wastes that are listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 due to the presence of chromium, which do not fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for any other constituent or are not listed due to the presence of any other constituent, and which do not fail the test for any other characteristic, if it is shown by a waste generator or by waste generators that all of the following provisions are met:

    (i)      The chromium in the waste is exclusively, or nearly exclusively, trivalent chromium.

    (ii)         The waste is generated from an industrial process that uses trivalent chromium exclusively, or nearly exclusively, and the process does not generate hexavalent chromium.

    (iii)      The waste is typically and frequently managed in nonoxidizing environments.

    (g)        The following specific wastes that are in compliance with the standard in subdivision (f) of this subrule, if the wastes do not fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for any other constituent and do not fail the test for any other characteristic:

    (i)      Chrome (blue) trimmings generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:

    (A)    Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (B)    Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (C)    Retan/wet finish.

    (D)    No beamhouse.

    (E)    Through-the-blue.

    (F)     Shearling.

    (ii)       Chrome (blue) shavings generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:

    (A)    Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (B)    Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (C)    Retan/wet finish.

    (D)    No beamhouse.

    (E)    Through-the-blue.

    (F)     Shearling.

    (iii)       Buffing dust generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:

    (A)    Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (B)    Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (C)    Retan/wet finish.

    (D)    No beamhouse.

    (E)    Through-the-blue.

    (iv)          Sewer screenings generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:

    (A)    Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

     

     

    (B)    Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (C)    Retan/wet finish.

    (D)    No beamhouse.

    (E)    Through-the-blue.

    (F)     Shearling.

    (v)      Wastewater treatment sludges generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:

    (A)    Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (B)    Hair save/chrome, tan/retan wet finish.

    (C)    Retan/wet finish.

    (D)    No beamhouse.

    (E)    Through-the-blue.

    (F)     Shearling.

    (vi)          Wastewater treatment sludges generated by any of the following subcategories of the leather tanning and finishing industry:

    (A)    Hair pulp/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (B)    Hair save/chrome, tan/retan/wet finish.

    (C)    Through-the-blue.

    (vii)       Waste scrap leather from the leather tanning industry, the shoe manufacturing industry, and other leather product manufacturing industries.

    (viii)       Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of Ti02 pigment using chromium-bearing ores by the chloride process.

    (ix)      Ink generated by United States postal service in its automated facer canceled systems.

    (h)         Waste from the extraction, beneficiation, and processing of ores and minerals, including coal, phosphate  rock,  and   overburden   from   the   mining   of   uranium   ore,   except   as   provided   in 40 C.F.R. §266.112 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste. For purposes of this subdivision, the following provisions apply:

    (i)         Beneficiation of ores and minerals is restricted to the following activities: crushing; grinding; washing; dissolution; crystallization; filtration; sorting; sizing; drying; sintering; pelletizing; briqueting; calcining to remove water or carbon dioxide, or both; roasting, autoclaving, or chlorination, or any combination thereof, in preparation for leaching, except where the roasting/leaching or autoclaving/leaching or chlorination/leaching sequence produces a final or intermediate product that does not undergo further beneficiation or processing; gravity concentration; magnetic separation; electrostatic separation; flotation; ion exchange; solvent extraction; electrowinning; precipitation; amalgamation; and heap, dump, vat, tank, and in-situ leaching.

    (ii)          Waste from the processing of ores and minerals shall include only the following wastes as generated:

    (A)    Slag from primary copper processing.

    (B)      Slag from primary lead processing.

    (C)    Red and brown muds from bauxite refining.

    (D)    Phosphogypsum from phosphoric acid production.

    (E)    Slag from elemental phosphorus production.

    (F)     Gasifier ash from coal gasification.

    (G)    Process wastewater from coal gasification.

    (H)    Calcium sulfate wastewater treatment plant sludge from primary copper processing.

    (I)    Slag tailings from primary copper processing.

    (J)     Fluorogypsum from hydrofluoric acid production.

    (K)    Process wastewater from hydrofluoric acid production.

     

     

    (L)    Air pollution control dust/sludge from iron blast furnaces.

    (M)     Iron blast furnace slag.

    (N)    Treated residue from roasting/leaching of chrome ore.

    (O)    Process wastewater from primary magnesium processing by the anhydrous process.

    (P)     Process wastewater from phosphoric acid production.

    (Q)      Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace air pollution control dust/sludge from carbon steel production.

    (R)    Basic oxygen furnace and open hearth furnace slag from carbon steel production.

    (S)     Chloride process waste solids from titanium tetrachloride production.

    (T)     Slag from primary zinc processing.

    (iii)            Residues derived from co-processing mineral processing secondary materials with normal beneficiation raw materials or with normal mineral processing  raw  materials  remain  excluded under subrule (2) of this rule if the owner or operator meets both of the following requirements:

    (A)       Processes at least 50 percent by weight normal beneficiation raw materials or normal mineral processing raw materials.

    (B)    Legitimately reclaims the secondary mineral processing materials.

    (i)      Mixtures of a waste that is excluded from regulation pursuant to subdivision (h) of this subrule and any other waste that exhibits a hazardous waste characteristic pursuant to R 299.9212 and that is not listed pursuant to R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, such that the resultant mixture does not exhibit any hazardous waste characteristic that would have been exhibited by the non-excluded waste alone if the mixture had not occurred.

    (j)      Cement kiln dust waste, except as provided in 40 C.F.R. §266.112 for facilities that burn or process hazardous waste.

    (k)      Waste which consists of discarded arsenical-treated wood or wood products, which fails the test for the toxicity characteristic for hazardous waste numbers D004 through D017 and which is not a hazardous waste for any other reason, if the waste is generated by persons who utilize the arsenical-treated wood and wood products for these materials' intended end use.

    (l)      Petroleum-contaminated media and debris that fail the test for the toxicity characteristic pursuant to R 299.9212 for hazardous waste numbers D018 through D043 only and are subject to the corrective action regulations pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 280.

    (m)          Used chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants from totally enclosed heat transfer equipment, including mobile air conditioning systems, mobile refrigeration, and commercial and industrial air conditioning and refrigeration systems that use chlorofluorocarbons as the heat transfer fluid in a refrigeration cycle, if the refrigerant is reclaimed for further use.

    (n)       Non-terne plated used oil filters that are not mixed with wastes that are identified in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, or both, if the oil filters have been gravity hot-drained using 1 of the following methods:

    (i)      Puncturing the filter anti-drain back valve or the filter dome end and hot-draining.

    (ii)      Hot-draining and crushing.

    (iii)      Dismantling and hot-draining.

    (iv)      Any other equivalent hot-draining method that will remove used oil.

    (o)        Leachate or gas condensate collected from landfills where certain wastes have been disposed of provided that all of the following requirements are met:

    (i)       The wastes disposed would meet 1 or more of the listing descriptions for hazardous waste numbers K169, K170, K171, K172, K174, K175, K176, K177, and K178, and K181 if these wastes had been generated after the effective date of the listing.

    (ii)      The wastes described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision were disposed before the effective date of the listing February 8, 1999.

     

     

    (iii)       The leachate or gas condensate do not exhibit any characteristic of a hazardous waste and are not derived from any other listed hazardous waste.

    (iv)        The discharge of the leachate or gas condensate, including leachate or gas condensate transferred from the landfill to a publicly owned treatment works by truck, rail, or dedicated pipe, is subject to regulations under sections 307(b) or 402 of the federal clean water act.

    (v)       As of February 13, 2001, leachate or gas condensate derived from K169, K170, K171, and K172 is no longer exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment before discharge. As of After November 21, 2003, leachate or gas condensate derived from K176, K177, or K178 will is no longer be exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment before discharge. After February 26, 2007, leachate or gas condensate derived from K181 will no longer be exempt if it is stored or managed in a surface impoundment before discharge unless the surface impoundment meets both of the following requirements:

    (A)     The surface impoundment is used to temporarily store leachate or gas condensate in response to an emergency situation.

    (B)      The surface impoundment has a double liner, and the leachate or gas condensate is removed from the impoundment and continues to be managed in compliance with the conditions of subdivision (o) of this subrule after the emergency ends.

    (3)     The following hazardous wastes are not subject to regulation pursuant to parts 3 to 10 of these rules:

    (a)        A hazardous waste that is generated in a product or raw material storage tank, a product or raw material transport vehicle or vessel, a product or raw material pipeline, or a manufacturing process unit or an associated nonwaste treatment manufacturing unit. This exemption does not apply in any of the following circumstances:

    (i)      Once the waste exits the unit in which it was generated.

    (ii)      If the unit is a surface impoundment.

    (iii)      If the hazardous waste remains in the unit more than 90 days after the unit ceases to be operated for the manufacturing, storage, or transportation of product or raw materials.

    (b)        Waste pesticides and pesticide residues which are generated by a farmer from his or her own use and which are hazardous wastes if the pesticide residues are disposed of on the farmer's own farm in a manner that is consistent with the disposal instructions on the pesticide container label and if the farmer empties or cleans each pesticide container pursuant to R 299.9207.

    (4)     Except as provided in subrule (5) of this rule, a sample of waste or a sample of water, soil, or air that is collected for the sole purpose of testing to determine its characteristics or composition is not subject to part 111 of the act and these rules if 1 of the following provisions is met:

    (a)      The sample is being transported to a laboratory for the purpose of testing.

    (b)      The sample is being transported back to the sample collector after testing.

    (c)      The sample is being stored by the sample collector before transport to a laboratory for testing.

    (d)      The sample is being stored in a laboratory before testing.

    (e)         The sample is being stored in a laboratory after testing but before it is returned to the sample collector.

    (f)      The sample is being stored temporarily in the laboratory after testing for a specific purpose, such as until conclusion of a court case or enforcement action where further testing of the sample might be necessary.

    (5)       To qualify for the exemption specified in subrule (4) of this rule, a sample collector that ships samples to a laboratory and a laboratory that returns samples to a sample collector shall comply with DOT, United States postal service, or any other applicable shipping requirements. The sample collector shall only ship a volume that is necessary for testing and analysis and, if the sample collector determines that DOT, United States postal service, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of

     

     

    the sample, the sample collector shall package the sample so that it does not leak, spill, or vaporize from its packaging and assure that all of the following information accompanies the sample:

    (a)      The sample collector's name, mailing address, and telephone number.

    (b)      The laboratory's name, mailing address, and telephone number.

    (c)      The quantity of the sample.

    (d)      The date of shipment.

    (e)      A description of the sample.

    (6)      The exemption specified in subrule (4) of this rule does not apply if the laboratory determines that the waste is hazardous but the laboratory is no longer in compliance with any of the conditions stated in subrule (5) of this rule.

    (7)     Persons who generate or collect samples for the purpose of conducting treatability studies as defined in R 299.9108 are not subject to the requirements of parts 2, 3, and 4 of these rules or the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA and the samples are not included in the quantity determinations specified in R 299.9205 and R 299.9306(4) when the sample is being collected and prepared for transportation by the generator or sample collector, the sample is being accumulated or stored by the generator or sample collector before transportation to a laboratory or testing facility, or the sample is being transported to a laboratory or testing facility for the purpose of conducting a treatability study. The exemption specified in this subrule is applicable to samples of hazardous waste that are being collected and shipped for the purpose of conducting treatability studies if all of the following provisions are complied with:

    (a)          The generator or sample collector does not use more than 10,000 kilograms of media that is contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste, 1,000 kilograms of any nonacute hazardous waste other than contaminated media, 1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic hazardous waste, or 2,500 kilograms of media that is contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous waste for each process that is being evaluated for each generated waste stream in a treatability study.

    (b)         The mass of each sample shipment is not more than 10,000 kilograms. The 10,000-kilograms quantity may be all media contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste or may include 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous waste, 1,000 kilograms of nonacute hazardous waste, and 1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic hazardous waste.

    (c)        The sample shall be packaged and transported so that it will not leak, spill, or vaporize from its packaging during shipment and so that either of the following requirements are met:

    (i)         The transportation of each sample shipment is in compliance with United States department of transportation, United States postal service, or any other applicable shipping requirements.

    (ii)          If the DOT, United States postal service, or other shipping requirements do not apply to the shipment of the sample, all of the following information shall accompany the sample:

    (A)    The name, mailing address, and telephone number of the originator of the sample.

    (B)    The name, address, and telephone number of the facility that will perform the treatability study.

    (C)    The quantity of the sample.

    (D)    The date of the shipment.

    (E)    A description of the sample, including its hazardous waste number.

    (d)       The sample is shipped to a laboratory or testing facility that is exempt pursuant to subrule (10) of this rule or has an appropriate RCRA permit, state hazardous waste operating license, or interim status.

    (e)      The generator or sample collector maintains all of the following records for 3 years after completion of the treatability study:

    (i)      Copies of the shipping documents.

    (ii)      A copy of the contract with the facility that conducts the treatability study.

    (iii)      Documentation that shows all of the following information:

    (A)    The amount of waste that is shipped pursuant to this exemption.

     

     

    (B)     The name, address, and site identification number of the laboratory or testing facility that received the waste.

    (C)    The date the shipment was made.

    (D)    If unused samples and residues were returned to the generator.

    (f)       The generator reports the information required pursuant to subdivision (e)(iii) of this subrule in its biennial report.

    (8)         The director may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for up to an additional 2 years for treatability studies involving bioremediation. The director may grant requests on a case-by-case basis for quantity limits in excess of those specified in subrules (7)(a) and (b) and (10)(d) of this rule for up to an additional 5,000 kilograms of media contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste, 500 kilograms of nonacute hazardous waste, 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous waste, and 1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic hazardous waste. A request may be granted in response to 1 or both of the following requests:

    (a)      A request for authorization to ship, store, and conduct treatability studies on, additional quantities in advance of commencing treatability studies. The director shall consider all of the following factors in determining whether to grant the request:

    (i)      The nature of the technology.

    (ii)      The type of process.

    (iii)      The size of the unit undergoing testing, particularly in relation to scale-up considerations.

    (iv)      The time and quantity of material required to reach steady state operating conditions.

    (v)      Test design considerations such as mass balance calculations.

    (b)       A request for authorization to ship, store, and conduct treatability studies on, additional quantities after initiation or completion of initial treatability studies when any of the following occur:

    (i)      There has been an equipment or mechanical failure during the conduct of a treatability study.

    (ii)      There is a need to verify the results of a previously conducted treatability study.

    (iii)      There is a need to study and analyze alternative techniques within a previously evaluated treatment process.

    (iv)          There is a need to do further evaluation of an ongoing treatability study to determine final specifications for treatment.

    (9)      The additional quantities and time frames allowed under subrule (8) of this rule are subject to this rule. The generator or sample collector shall apply to the director and shall provide, in writing, all of the following information:

    (a)       The reason why the generator or sample collector requires an additional quantity of the sample or time for the treatability study evaluation and the additional quantity or time needed.

    (b)      Documentation accounting for all samples of hazardous waste from the waste stream that have been sent for or undergone treatability studies, including all of the following information:

    (i)      The date that each previous sample from the waste stream was shipped.

    (ii)      The sample quantity of each previous shipment.

    (iii)      The laboratory or testing facility to which the sample was shipped.

    (iv)      What treatability study processes were conducted on each sample shipped.

    (v)      The available results of each treatability study.

    (c)       A description of the technical modifications or change in specifications that will be evaluated and the expected results.

    (d)       If further study is being required due to equipment or mechanical failure, then the applicant shall include information regarding the reason for the failure and also include a description of what procedures were established, or what equipment improvements have been made, to protect against further equipment or mechanical failure.

    (e)      Other information that the director considers necessary.

     

     

    (10)      Samples that undergo treatability studies and the laboratory or testing facility that conducts the treatability studies, to the extent the facilities are not otherwise subject to the requirements of part 111 of the act or these rules, are not subject to any of the requirements of these rules or to the notification requirements of section 3010 of RCRA if the conditions of this subrule are met. A mobile treatment unit may qualify as a testing facility subject to this subrule. If a group of mobile treatment units is located at the same site, then the limitations specified in this subrule apply to the entire group of mobile treatment units collectively as if the group were 1 mobile treatment unit. The conditions are as follows:

    (a)       Not less than 45 days before conducting treatability studies, the facility shall notify the director, in writing, that it intends to conduct treatability studies pursuant to this rule.

    (b)      The laboratory or testing facility that conducts the treatability study has a site identification number.

    (c)         Not more than a total of 10,000 kilograms of "as received" media contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste, 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous waste, or 250 kilograms of other "as received" hazardous waste is subjected to the initiation of treatment in all treatability studies in any single day. "As received" hazardous waste refers to waste as received in the shipment from the generator or sample collector.

    (d)         The quantity of "as received" hazardous waste that is stored at the facility for the purpose of evaluation in treatability studies is not more than 10,000 kilograms, the total of which may include 10,000 kilograms of media contaminated with nonacute hazardous waste, 2,500 kilograms of media contaminated with acute or severely toxic hazardous waste, 1,000 kilograms of nonacute hazardous waste other than contaminated media, and 1 kilogram of acute or severely toxic hazardous waste. The quantity limitation does not include treatment materials, including nonhazardous waste, that are added to "as received" hazardous waste.

    (e)      Not more than 90 days have elapsed since the treatability study for the sample was completed, or not more than 1 year, or 2 years for treatability studies involving bioremediation, has elapsed since the generator or sample collector shipped the sample to the laboratory or testing facility, whichever date occurs first.

    (f)       The treatability study does not involve the placement of hazardous waste on the land or the open burning of hazardous waste.

    (g)           The facility maintains records, for 3 years following completion of each study, that show compliance with the treatment rate limits, storage time, and quantity limits. All of the following specific information shall be included for each treatability study that is conducted:

    (i)      The name, address, and site identification number of the generator or sample collector of each waste sample.

    (ii)      The date the shipment was received.

    (iii)      The quantity of waste accepted.

    (iv)      The quantity of "as received" waste in storage each day.

    (v)        The date the treatment study was initiated and the amount of "as received" waste introduced to treatment each day.

    (vi)      The date the treatability study was concluded.

    (vii)       The date any unused sample or residues generated from the treatability study were returned to the generator or sample collector or, if sent to a designated facility, the name of the facility and the site identification number.

    (h)          The facility keeps, on site, a copy of the treatability study contract and all shipping papers associated with the transport of treatability study samples to and from the facility for a period ending 3 years from the completion date of each treatability study.

    (i)      The facility prepares and submits a report to the director by March 15 of each year that estimates the number of studies and the amount of waste expected to be used in treatability studies during the current year and includes all of the following information for the previous calendar year:

     

     

    (i)      The name, address, and site identification number of the facility conducting the treatability studies.

    (ii)      The types, by process, of treatability studies conducted.

    (iii)        The names and addresses of persons for whom studies have been conducted, including their site identification numbers.

    (iv)      The total quantity of waste in storage each day.

    (v)      The total quantity and types of waste subjected to treatability studies.

    (vi)      When each treatability study was conducted.

    (vii)       The final disposition of residues and unused sample from each treatability study.

    (j)        The facility determines if any unused sample or residues generated by the treatability study are hazardous waste pursuant to R 299.9203 and, if so, are subject to these rules, unless the residues and unused samples are returned to the sample originator pursuant to the exemption in subrule (7) of this rule.

    (k)        The facility notifies the director, by letter, when the facility is no longer planning to conduct any treatability studies at the site.

    (11)      The disposal of PCB-containing dielectric fluid and electric equipment that contains the fluid as authorized for use and as regulated pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 761 and fluid and equipment that are hazardous only because they fail the test for the toxicity characteristic for hazardous waste numbers D018 through D043 are not subject to regulation pursuant to parts 2 to 7 and 9 and 10 of these rules.

    (12)      Dredged material, as defined in 40 C.F.R. §232.2, that is subject to the requirements of a permit that has been issued pursuant to section 404 of the federal water pollution control act, 33 U.S.C. §1344, or section 103 of the marine protection, research, and sanctuaries act of 1972, 33 U.S.C. §1413, is not a hazardous waste for the purposes of part 111 of the act and these rules. For the purposes of this exemption, the term "permit" means any of the following:

    (a)       A permit issued by the U.S. army corps of engineers or an approved state under section 404 of the federal water pollution control act, 33 U.S.C. §1344.

    (b)        A permit issued by the U.S. army corps of engineers under section 103 of the marine protection, research, and sanctuaries act of 1972, 33 U.S.C. §1413.

    (c)      In the case of U.S. army corps of engineers civil works projects, the administrative equivalent of the  permits referred to in subdivisions (a) and (b) of this subrule, as provided for in the U.S. army corps of  engineers regulations.

    (13)         The provisions  of  40  C.F.R.  §261.38,  part  280,  and  part  761  are  adopted  by  reference  in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9207 Residues of hazardous waste in empty containers.

    Rule 207. (1) Any hazardous waste that remains in either an empty container or an inner liner which is removed from an empty container, as explained in subrules (3), (4), and (5) of this rule, is not subject to regulation pursuant to the provisions of parts 3 to 10 of these rules.

    (2)     Any hazardous waste in either a container that is not empty or an inner liner which is removed from a container that is not empty, as explained in subrule (3), (4), or (5) of this rule, is subject to regulation pursuant to these rules.

    (3)     A container or an inner liner which is removed from a container that has held any hazardous waste, except for a waste which is a compressed gas, which is identified as an acute hazardous waste listed in table 203a, 204a, 204b, or 205a of this part, or which is a severely toxic hazardous waste, is empty if both of the following conditions are met:

    (a)         All wastes have been removed that can be removed using the practices commonly employed to remove materials from that type of container, such as pouring, pumping, and aspirating.

    (b)        Not more than 2.5 centimeters (1 inch) of residue remain on the bottom of the container or inner liner or either of the following conditions is met:

     

     

    (i)       Not more than 3% by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is less than or equal to 1109 gallons in size.

    (ii)        Not more than 0.3% by weight of the total capacity of the container remains in the container or inner liner if the container is more than 1109 gallons in size.

    (4)     A container that has held a hazardous waste that is a compressed gas is empty when the pressure in the container approaches atmospheric.

    (5)      A container or an inner liner that is removed from a container which has held an acute hazardous waste that is listed in table 203a, 204a, 204b, or 205a of this part or that is a severely toxic hazardous waste is empty if any of the following criteria are met:

    (a)        The container or inner liner has been triple rinsed using a solvent that is capable of removing the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate.

    (b)       The container or inner liner has been cleaned by another method that has been shown, in scientific literature or by tests conducted by the generator, to achieve equivalent removal.

    (c)       In the case of a container, the inner liner that prevented contact of the commercial chemical product or manufacturing chemical intermediate with the container has been removed.

    (d)       In the case of a container or inner liner that has held a pharmaceutical formulation that is an acute hazardous waste listed solely for a hazardous waste characteristic and the formulation in the container or inner liner does not exhibit the characteristic for which the waste was listed, the container or inner liner is empty if the requirements of subrule (3) of this rule are met.

     

    R 299.9212 Characteristics of hazardous waste.

    Rule 212. (1) A waste exhibits the characteristic of ignitability and is identified by the hazardous waste number D001 if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:

    (a)      It is a liquid, other than an aqueous solution produced by a kraft pulp or paper mill that contains less than 24% alcohol by volume or an aqueous solution that contains less than 24% alcohol, by volume, as defined by section 211.117(a)(5) to (7) of the Internal Revenue Code, 27 U.S.C. §211.117(a)(5) to (7), including distilled spirits, wine, and malt beverages, and has a flash point less than 60 degrees Centigrade (140 degrees Fahrenheit), as determined by any of the following test methods:

    (i)       A Pensky-Martens closed cup tester using the test method specified in ASTM standard D-93-79 or D-93-80, both of which are adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

    (ii)      A setaflash closed cup tester using the test method specified in ASTM standard D-3278-78, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11001.

    (iii)  A standard test method for flash point by continuously closed cup tester using the test method specified in ASTM standard D6450-99, which is adopted by reference in

    R 299.11001.

    (iv)  An equivalent test method approved by the director, or his or her designee, pursuant to procedures set forth in 40 C.F.R. §§260.20 and 260.21, which are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

    (b)        It is not a liquid and is capable, under standard temperature and pressure, of causing fire through friction, absorption of moisture, or spontaneous chemical changes and, when ignited, burns so vigorously and persistently that it creates a hazard.

    (c)      It is an ignitable compressed gas as defined in 49 C.F.R. §173.115, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11004, and as determined by the test methods described in 49 C.F.R. §173.115 or equivalent test methods approved by the director pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §§260.20 and 2601.21 and meets the criteria specified therein.

    (d)      It is an oxidizer as defined in 49 C.F.R. §173.127, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

    (2)      A waste exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity and is identified by the hazardous waste number D002 if a representative sample of the waste has either of the following properties:

     

     

    (a)      It is aqueous and has a pH less than or equal to 2 or greater than or equal to 12.5, as determined by a pH meter using method 9040C in the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which is adopted by reference in R 299.11005.

    (b)      It is a liquid and corrodes steel (SAE 1020) at a rate of more than 6.35 mm (0.250 inch) per year at a test temperature of 55 degrees Centigrade (130 degrees Fahrenheit) as determined by the test method 1110A specified in the national association of corrosion engineers (NACE) standard TM-01-69, as  standardized in method 5.3 of the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which is adopted by reference in R 299.11005.

    (3)       A waste exhibits the characteristic of reactivity and is identified by the hazardous waste number D003 if a representative sample of the waste has any of the following properties:

    (a)      It is normally unstable and readily undergoes violent change without detonating.

    (b)      It reacts violently with water.

    (c)      It forms potentially explosive mixtures with water.

    (d)      When mixed with water, it generates toxic gases, vapors, or fumes in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the environment.

    (e)      It is a cyanide or sulfide-bearing waste that, when exposed to pH conditions between 2 and 12.5, can generate toxic gases, vapors, or fumes in a quantity sufficient to present a danger to human health or the environment.

    (f)       It is capable of detonation or explosive reaction if it is subjected to a strong initiating source or if heated under confinement.

    (g)        It is readily capable of detonation or explosive decomposition or reaction at standard temperature and pressure.

    (h)     It is a forbidden explosive as defined in 49 C.F.R. §173.54, or it meets the definition of a class 1/division 1.1, 1.2, or 1.3 explosive as defined in 49 C.F.R. §173.50, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

    (4)        A waste, except manufactured gas plant waste, exhibits the toxicity characteristic if, using the toxicity characteristic leaching procedure, test Method 1311 in the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating  Solid  Waste,  Physical/Chemical  Methods,"  which  is  adopted  by  reference  in R 299.11005, the extract from a representative sample of the waste contains any of the contaminants listed by the administrator or the director and identified in table 201a of these rules at a concentration equal to or greater than the respective values given in the tables. If the waste contains less than 0.5% filterable solids, then the waste itself, after filtering using the methodology outlined in method 1311, is considered to be the extract for the purposes of this rule.

    (5)     A waste exhibits the characteristic of severe toxicity if the waste contains l part per million or more of a severely toxic substance listed in table 202.

    (6)     A hazardous waste that is identified by a characteristic in this rule shall be assigned every hazardous waste number that is applicable. The hazardous waste number or numbers shall be used in complying with the notification, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements of these rules. The hazardous waste numbers are as follows:

    (a)       For wastes determined to be hazardous pursuant to subrules (4) and (5) of this rule, the hazardous waste number listed in table 201a or table 202 of these rules.

    (b)      For a waste that exhibits the characteristic of ignitability, the hazardous waste number D001.

    (c)      For a waste that exhibits the characteristic of corrosivity, the hazardous waste number D002.

    (d)      For a waste that exhibits the characteristic of reactivity, the hazardous waste number D003.

     

     

    (7)       For the purposes of this rule, the director, or his or her designee, shall consider a sample that is obtained using any of the applicable sampling methods specified in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix I, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11003, to be a representative sample.

    (8)     The following test methods shall be used:

    (a)       For aflatoxin, the test methods set forth in subsection 26, natural poisons, of the publication entitled "Official Methods of Analysis of the Association of Official Analytical Chemists," 13th edition, 1980, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11006.

    For chlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and chlorinated dibenzofurans in chemical wastes, including still bottoms, filter aids, sludges, spent carbon, and reactor residues, and in soil, EPA method 8280 in the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," which is adopted by reference in R 299.11005.

    (c) Alternate procedures as approved by the director or his or her designee.

    (9)         The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§260.20, and 260.21, and 261.21 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9222 Table 204a; hazardous wastes from specific sources. Rule 222. Table 204a reads as follows:

     

    Table 204a

     

    Industry

    EPA Hazardous Waste Number

    Hazardous Waste From Specific Sources

    Hazard Code

    Wood Preservation

    K001

    Bottom sediment sludge from the treatment of wastewaters from wood-preserving processes that use creosote or pentachlorophenol, or both of these compounds

    (T)

    Inorganic Pigments

    K002

    Wastewater production pigments

    treatment of  chrome

    sludge yellow

    from      the and  orange

    (T)

    K003

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of molybdate orange pigments

    (T)

    K004

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of zinc yellow pigments

    (T)

    K005

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of chrome green pigments

    (T)

    K006

    Wastewater treatment sludge from the production of chrome oxide green pigments, anhydrous and hydrated forms

    (T)

    K007

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of iron blue pigments

    (T)

    K008

    Oven residue from the production of chrome oxide green pigments

    (T)

    Organic Chemicals

    K009

    Distillation  bottoms  from  the  production  of chemicals acetaldehyde from ethylene

    (T)

    K010

    Distillation side cuts from the production of acetaldehyde from ethylene

    (T)

    K011

    Bottom stream from the wastewater stripper in the production of acrylonitrile

    (R,T)

     

     

     

    K013

    Bottom stream from the acetonitrile column in the production of acrylonitrile

    (R,T)

    K014

    Bottoms  from  the  acetonitrile  purification column in the production of acrylonitrile

    (T)

    K015

    Still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride

    (T)

    K016

    Heavy ends or distillation residues from the production of carbon tetrachloride

    (T)

    K017

    Heavy ends or still bottoms from the purification column in the production of epichlorohydrin

    (T)

    K018

    Heavy ends from the fractionation column in ethyl chloride production

    (T)

    K019

    Heavy ends from the distillation of ethylene dichloride in ethylene dichloride production

    (T)

    K020

    Heavy  ends  from  the  distillation  of  vinyl chloride in vinyl chloride monomer production

    (T)

    K021

    Aqueous spent antimony catalyst waste from fluoromethanes production

    (T)

    K022

    Distillation bottom tars from the production of phenol or acetone from cumene

    (T)

    K023

    Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene

    (T)

    K024

    Distillation  bottoms  from  the  production  of phthalic anhydride from naphthalene

    (T)

    K025

    Distillation  bottoms  from  the  production  of nitrobenzene by the nitration of benzene

    (T)

    K026

    Stripping  still  tails  from  the  production  of methyl ethyl pyridines

    (T)

    K027

    Centrifuge      and    distillation      residues      from toluene diisocyanate production

    (R,T)

    K028

    Spent catalyst from the hydrochlorinator reactor in the production of 1,1,1- trichloroethane

    (T)

    K029

    Waste from the product steam stripper in the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane

    (T)

    K030

    Column bottoms or heavy ends from the combined production of trichloroethylene and perchloroethylene

    (T)

     

    K083

    Distillation bottoms from aniline production

    (T)

    K085

    Distillation  of  fractionation  column bottoms from the production of chlorobenzenes

    (T)

    K093

    Distillation light ends from the production of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene

    (T)

    K094

    Distillation  bottoms  from  the  production  of phthalic anhydride from ortho-xylene

    (T)

     

     

     

    K095

    Distillation  bottoms  from  the  production  of 1,1,1-trichloroethane

    (T)

    K096

    Heavy ends from the heavy ends column from the production of 1,1,1-trichloroethane

    (T)

    K103

    Process residues from aniline extraction from the production of aniline

    (T)

    K104

    Combined wastewater streams generated from nitrobenzene or aniline production

    (T)

    K105

    Separated aqueous stream from the reactor product washing step in the production of chlorobenzenes

    (T)

    K107

    Column bottoms from product separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

    (C,T)

    K108

    Condensed column overheads from product separation and condensed reactor vent gases from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

    (I,T)

    K109

    Spent filter cartridges from product purification from the production of 1,1- dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

    (T)

    K110

    Condensed column overheads from intermediate separation from the production of 1,1-dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) from carboxylic acid hydrazides

    (T)

    K111

    Product  washwaters  from  the  production  of dinitrotoluene via nitration of toluene

    (C,T)

    K112

    Reaction by-product water from the drying column in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

    (T)

     

    K113

    Condensed liquid light ends from the purification of  toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

    (T)

    K114

    Vicinals from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

    (T)

    K115

    Heavy ends from the purification of toluenediamine in the production of toluenediamine via hydrogenation of dinitrotoluene

    (T)

    K116

    Organic condensate from the solvent recovery column in the production of toluene diisocyanate via phosgenation of toluenediamine

    (T)

     

     

    K117

    Wastewater from the reactor vent gas scrubber in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethane

    (T)

    K118

    Spent adsorbent solids from purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene

    (T)

    K136

    Still bottoms from the purification of ethylene dibromide in the production of ethylene dibromide via bromination of ethene

    (T)

    K149

    Distillation bottoms from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups. This waste  does  not include still bottoms from the distillation of benzyl chloride.

    (T)

    K150

    Organic residuals, excluding spent carbon adsorbent, from the spent chlorine gas and hydrochloric acid recovery processes associated with the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes, ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups

    (T)

     

    K151

    Wastewater    treatment   sludges,    excluding

    *neutralization and biological sludges, generated during the treatment of wastewaters from the production of alpha- (or methyl-) chlorinated toluenes,  ring-chlorinated toluenes, benzoyl chlorides, and compounds with mixtures of these functional groups

    (T)

    K156

    Organic waste, including heavy ends, still bottoms, light ends, spent solvents, filtrates, and decantates, from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.

    (T)

    K157

    Wastewaters, including scrubber waters, condenser waters, washwaters, and separation waters, from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of 3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.

    (T)

    K158

    Baghouse dusts and filter/separation solids from the production of carbamates and carbamoyl oximes. This listing does not apply to wastes generated from the manufacture of

    (T)

     

     

     

    3-iodo-2-propynyl n-butylcarbamate.

     

    K159

    Organics from the treatment of thiocarbamate wastes

    (T)

    K161

    Purification solids, including filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids, bag house dust, and floor sweepings from the production of dithiocarbamates acids and their salts. This listing does not include K125 or K126.

    (R,T)

     

    K174

    Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer, including sludges that result from commingled ethylene dichloride or vinyl chloride monomer wastewater and other wastewater, unless the sludges meet the following conditions: (1) they are disposed of in a hazardous waste landfill or a nonhazardous waste landfill licensed or permitted by the state or federal government,

    (2) they are not otherwise placed on the land before final disposal, and (3) the generator maintains documentation demonstrating that the waste was either disposed of in an on-site landfill or consigned to a transporter or disposal facility that provided a written commitment to dispose of the waste in an off- site landfill. Respondents in any action brought to enforce the requirements of RCRA or part 111 of the act must, upon a showing by the government that the respondent managed wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer or ethylene dichloride, demonstrate that they meet the terms of the exclusion set forth herein. In doing so, they must provide appropriate documentation, such as contracts between the generator and the landfill owner/operator or invoices documenting delivery of the waste to the landfill, that the terms of the exclusion were met.

    (T)

    K175

    Wastewater treatment sludges from the production of vinyl chloride monomer using mercuric chloride catalyst in an acetylene- based process

    (T)

    K181

    Nonwastewaters from the production of dyes or pigments, including nonwastewaters commingled at the point of generation with

    (T)

     

     

     

    nonwastewaters from other processes, that, at the point of generation, contain mass loadings of any of the K181 listing constituents identified in 40 C.F.R. §261.32(c) that are equal to or greater than the listing levels identified in 40 C.F.R. §261.32(c), as determined on a calendar year basis. These wastes shall not be considered hazardous if the nonwastewaters are managed in compliance with the requirements for this listing as outlined in of 40 C.F.R. §261.32(a). For the purposes of this listing, dyes or pigments production is defined to include manufacture of the following product classes: dyes, pigments, or federal food and drug administration certified colors that are classified as azo, triarylmethane, perylene, or anthraquinone classes. Azo products include azo, monoazo, diazo, triazo, polyazo, azoic, benzidine, and pyrazolone products. Triarylmethane products include both triarylmethane and triphenylmethane products. Wastes that are not generated at a dyes or pigments manufacturing site, such as wastes from the offsite  use, formulation,  and packaging of dyes or pigments, are not included in this listing. The process for demonstrating that a facility's nonwastewaters are     not     K181     is      contained      in 40 C.F.R. §261.32(d). This K181 listing does not apply to wastes that are otherwise identified as hazardous waste under R 299.9212,         R 299.9217,         R 299.9220,

    R 299.9222, R 299.9224, or R 299.9225 at the

    point of generation. Also, the listing does not apply to the wastes generated before any annual mass loading limit is met.

     

    Inorganic Chemicals

    K071

    Brine purification muds from the mercury cell process in chlorine production, where separately prepurified brine is not used

    (T)

    K073

    Chlorinated hydrocarbon wastes from the purification step of the diaphragm cell process using graphite anodes in chlorine production

    (T)

    K106

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the mercury cell process in chlorine production

    (T)

     

    K176

    Baghouse      filters     from     the    production                   of antimony  oxide,  including  filters  from  the

    (E)

     

     

     

    production of intermediates

     

    K177

    Slag from the production of antimony oxide that is speculatively accumulated or disposed, including slag from the production of intermediates

    (T)

    K178

    Residues from manufacturing and manufacturing-site storage of ferric chloride from acids formed during the production of titanium dioxide using the chloride-ilmenite process

    (T)

    Pesticides

    K031

    By-product salts generated in the production of MSMA and cacodylic acid

    (T)

    K032

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of chlordane

    (T)

    K033

    Wastewater and  scrub water  from the chlorination of cyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane

    (T)

    K034

    Filter solids from the filtration of hexachlorocyclopentadiene in the production of chlordane

    (T)

    K035

    Wastewater treatment sludges generated in the production of creosote

    (T)

    K036

    Still     bottoms      from     toluene      reclamation distillation in the production of disulfoton

    (T)

    K037

    Wastewater       treatment      sludges    from     the production of disulfoton

    (T)

    K038

    Wastewater from the washing and stripping of phorate production

    (T)

    K039

    Filter cake from the filtration of diethylphosphorodithioic acid in the production of phorate

    (T)

    K040

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of phorate

    (T)

    K041

    Wastewater       treatment       sludge      from      the production of toxaphene

    (T)

     

    K042

    Heavy ends of distillation residues from the distillation of tetrachlorobenzene in the production of 2,4,5-T

    (T)

    K043

    2,6-Dichlorophenol waste from the production of 2,4-D

    (T)

    K097

    Vacuum stripper discharge from the chlordane chlorinator in the production of chlordane

    (T)

    K098

    Untreated      process     wastewater       from     the production of toxaphene

    (T)

    K099

    Untreated wastewater from the production of 2,4-D

    (T)

     

     

    K123

    Process wastewater, including supernates, filtrates, and washwaters, from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt

    (T)

    K124

    Reactor vent scrubber water from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt

    (C,T)

    K125

    Filtration, evaporation, and centrifugation solids from the production of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salt

    (T)

    K126

    Baghouse dust and floor sweepings in milling and packaging operations from the production or formulation of ethylenebisdithiocarbamic acid and its salts

    (T)

    K131

    Wastewater from the reactor and spent sulfuric acid from the acid dryer from the production of methyl bromide

    (C,T)

    K132

    Spent  absorbent  and  wastewater  separator solids from the production of methyl bromide

    (T)

    Explosives

    K044

    Wastewater       treatment      sludges    from     the manufacturing and processing of explosives

    (I)

    K045

    Spent carbon from the treatment of wastewater containing explosives

    (I)

    K046

    Wastewater treatment sludges from the manufacturing, formulation, and loading of lead-based initiating compounds

    (T)

    K047

    Pink or red water from TNT operations

    (I)

    Petroleum Refining

    K048

    Dissolved air floatation, DAF, float from the petroleum refining industry

    (T)

    K049

    Slop oil emulsion solids from the petroleum refining industry

    (T)

    K050

    Heat exchanger bundle cleaning sludge from the petroleum refining industry

    (T)

    K051

    API  separator  sludge  from  the  petroleum refining industry

    (T)

    K052

    Tank  bottoms,  leaded,  from  the  petroleum refining industry

    (T)

    K169

    Crude     oil     storage      tank     sediment      from petroleum refining operations

    (T)

    K170

    Clarified slurry oil  tank sediment  and/or in- line filter/separation solids from petroleum refining operations

    (T)

    K171

    Spent hydrotreating catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors. This listing does not include inert support media.

    (I, T)

     

     

    K172

    Spent hydrorefining catalyst from petroleum refining operations, including guard beds used to desulfurize feeds to other catalytic reactors. This listing does not include inert support media.

    (I, T)

    Iron Steel

    and

    K061

    Emission  control  dust  or  sludge  from  the primary production of steel in electric furnaces

    (T)

    K062

    Spent pickle liquor generated by steel finishing operations of facilities within the iron and steel industry

    (C,T)

    Primary Aluminum

    K088

    Spent     potliners reduction

    from

    primary

    aluminum

    (T)

    Secondary Lead

    K069

    Emission control dust or sludge from secondary lead smelting. (This listing is stayed administratively for sludge generated from secondary acid scrubber systems. The stay will remain in effect until further action is taken by the EPA and notice published in the Federal Register.)

    (T)

    K100

    Waste leaching solution from acid leaching of emission control dust sludge from secondary lead smelting

    (T)

    Veterinary Pharma- ceuticals

    K084

    Wastewater treatment sludges generated during the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds

    (T)

    K101

    Distillation tar residues from the distillation of aniline-based compounds in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds

    (T)

    K102

    Residue from the use of activated carbon for decolorization in the production of veterinary pharmaceuticals from arsenic or organo-arsenic compounds

    (T)

    Ink Formulation

    K086

    Solvent washes and sludges, caustic washes and sludges, or water washes and sludges from cleaning tubs and equipment used in the formulation of ink from pigments, driers, soaps, and stabilizers containing chromium and lead

    (T)

    Coking

    K060

    Ammonia     still    lime    sludge     from     coking operations

    (T)

    K087

    Decanter      tank     tar     sludge     from     coking operations

    (T)

    K141

    Process residues from the recovery of coal tar, including, but not limited to, collecting sump residues  from  the  production  of  coke  from

    (T)

     

     

     

    coal or the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal. This listing does not include K087.

     

    K142

    Tar storage tank residues from the production of coke from coal or from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal

    (T)

    K143

    Process residues from the recovery of light oil, including, but not limited to, those generated in stills, decanters, and wash oil recovery units from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal

    (T)

    K144

    Wastewater sump residues from light oil refining, including, but not limited to, intercepting or contamination sump sludges from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal

    (T)

     

    K145

    Residues from naphthalene collection and recovery operations from the recovery of coke by-products produced from coal

    (T)

    K147

    Tar   storage   tank   residues   from   coal   tar refining

    (T)

    K148

    Residues from coal tar distillation, including, but not limited to, still bottoms

    (T)

     

    R 299.9224  Table 205a; discarded commercial chemical products; off-specification species; container residues; and spill residues thereof as acutely hazardous wastes.

    Rule 224. Table 205a reads as follows:

     

    Table 205a

    EPA

    Hazardous Waste Number

    Chemical Abstract Services Number

     

    Substance

    Hazard Code

     

    P023

     

    107-20-0

     

    Acetaldehyde, chloro-

     

     

    P002

     

    591-08-2

     

    Acetamide, N-(aminothioxomethyl)-

     

     

    P057

     

    640-19-7

     

    Acetamide, 2-fluoro-

     

     

    P058

     

    62-74-8

     

    Acetic acid, fluoro-, sodium salt

     

     

    P002

     

    591-08-2

     

    1-Acetyl-2-thiourea

     

     

    P003

     

    107-02-8

     

    Acrolein

     

     

    P070

     

    116-06-3

     

    Aldicarb

     

     

     

     

    P203

     

    1646-88-4

     

    Aldicarb sulfone

     

     

    P004

     

    309-00-2

     

    Aldrin

     

     

    P005

     

    107-18-6

     

    Allyl alcohol

     

     

    P006

     

    20859-73-8

     

    Aluminum phosphide

     

    (R,T,)

     

    P007

     

    2763-96-4

     

    5-(Aminomethyl)-3-isoxazolol

     

     

    P008

     

    504-24-5

     

    4-Aminopyridine

     

     

    P009

     

    131-74-8

     

    Ammonium picrate

     

    (R)

     

    P119

     

    7803-55-6

     

    Ammonium vanadate

     

     

    P099

     

    506-61-6

     

    Argentate (1-), bis(cyano-C)-, potassium

     

     

    P010

     

    7778-39-4

     

    Arsenic acid

     

     

    P012

     

    1327-53-3

     

    Arsenic (III) oxide

     

     

    P011

     

    1303-28-2

     

    Arsenic (V) oxide

     

     

    P011

     

    1303-28-2

     

    Arsenic pentoxide

     

     

    P012

     

    1327-53-3

     

    Arsenic trioxide

     

     

    P038

     

    692-42-2

     

    Arsine, diethyl-

     

     

    P036

     

    696-28-6

     

    Arsonous dichloride, phenyl-

     

     

    P054

     

    151-56-4

     

    Aziridine

     

     

    P067

     

    75-55-8

     

    Aziridine, 2-methyl-

     

     

    P013

     

    542-62-1

     

    Barium cyanide

     

     

    P024

     

    106-47-8

     

    Benzenamine, 4-chloro-

     

     

    P077

     

    100-01-6

     

    Benzenamine, 4-nitro-

     

     

    P028

     

    100-44-7

     

    Benzene, (chloromethyl)-

     

     

    P042

     

    51-43-4

     

    1,2-Benzenediol,                   4-[1-hydroxy-2-

     

    (R)

     

     

     

     

    (methylamino)ethyl]-

     

     

    P046

     

    122-09-2

     

    Benzeneethanamine,            alpha,         alpha- dimethyl-

     

     

    P014

     

    108-98-5

     

    Benzenethiol

     

     

    P127

     

    1563-66-2

     

    7-benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-

    , methoycarbamate

     

     

    P188

     

    57-64-7

     

    Benzoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, compd. with (3aS-cis) - 1,2,3,3a,8,8a-hexahydro- 1,3a,8-

    trimethylpyrrolo [2,3- b] indol-5-yl

    methylcarbamate ester (1:1)

     

     

    P001

     

    81-81-2

     

    2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3- oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations greater  than 0.3%

     

     

    P028

     

    100-44-7

     

    Benzyl chloride

     

     

    P015

     

    7440-41-7

     

    Beryllium powder

     

     

    P017

     

    598-31-2

     

    Bromoacetone

     

     

    P018

     

    357-57-3

     

    Brucine

     

     

    P045

     

    39196-18-4

     

    2-Butanone, 3,3-dimethyl-1-(methylthio)-, O-[(methylamino) carbonyl] oxime

     

     

    P021

     

    592-01-8

     

    Calcium cyanide

     

     

    P021

     

    592-01-8

     

    Calcium cyanide Ca(CN)2

     

     

    P189

     

    55285-14-8

     

    Carbamic acid, [(dibutylamino)- thio]methyl-, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-7- benzofuranyl ester

     

     

    P191

     

    644-64-4

     

    Carbamic  acid,  dimethyl-,  1-[(dimethyl- amino)carbonyl]-5-methyl-1H-pyrazol-3- yl ester

     

     

    P192

     

    119-38-0

     

    Carbamic acid, dimethyl-, 3-methyl-1- (1-

     

     

     

     

     

    methylethyl)-1H-pyrazol-5-yl ester

     

     

    P190

     

    1129-41-5

     

    Carbamic  acid,  methyl-,  3-methylphenyl ester

     

     

    P127

     

    1563-66-2

     

    Carbofuran

     

     

    P022

     

    75-15-0

     

    Carbon disulfide

     

     

    P095

     

    75-44-5

     

    Carbonyl chloride

     

     

     

    P189

     

    55285-14-8

     

    Carbosulfan

     

     

    P023

     

    107-20-0

     

    Chloroacetaldehyde

     

     

    P024

     

    106-47-8

     

    p-Chloroaniline

     

     

    P026

     

    5344-82-1

     

    1-(o-Chlorophenyl)thiourea

     

     

    P027

     

    542-76-7

     

    3-Chloropropionitrile

     

     

    P029

     

    544-92-3

     

    Copper cyanide

     

     

    P029

     

    544-92-3

     

    Copper cyanide Cu(CN)

     

     

    P202

     

    64-00-6

     

    m-Cumenyl methylcarbamate

     

     

    P030

     

    --------

     

    Cyanides     (soluble      cyanide     salts),                  not elsewhere specified

     

     

    P031

     

    460-19-5

     

    Cyanogen

     

     

    P033

     

    506-77-4

     

    Cyanogen chloride

     

     

    P033

     

    506-77-4

     

    Cyanogen chloride (CN)C1

     

     

    P034

     

    131-89-5

     

    2-Cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitrophenol

     

     

    P016

     

    542-88-1

     

    Dichloromethyl ether

     

     

    P036

     

    696-28-6

     

    Dichlorophenylarsine

     

     

    P037

     

    60-57-1

     

    Dieldrin

     

     

    P038

     

    692-42-2

     

    Diethylarsine

     

     

     

     

    P041

     

    311-45-5

     

    Diethyl-p-nitrophenyl phosphate

     

     

    P040

     

    297-97-2

     

    0,0-Diethyl 0-pyrazinyl phosphorothioate

     

     

    P043

     

    55-91-4

     

    Diisopropyl fluorophosphate

     

     

    P004

     

    309-00-2

     

    1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a- hexahydro-,                (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta, 5alpha,8alpha,8abeta)-

     

     

    P060

     

    465-73-6

     

    1,4,5,8-Dimethanonaphthalene, 1,2,3,4,10,10-hexachloro-1,4,4a,5,8,8a- hexahydro-,                (1alpha,4alpha,4abeta, 5beta,8beta,8abeta)-

     

     

     

    P037

     

    60-57-1

     

    2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro- 1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha,2beta,2aalpha, 3beta,6beta,6aalpha,7beta,7aalpha)-

     

     

    P051

     

    72-20-8

     

    2,7:3,6-Dimethanonaphth[2,3-b]oxirene, 3,4,5,6,9,9-hexachloro-

    1a,2,2a,3,6,6a,7,7a-octahydro-, (1aalpha, 2beta,2abeta,3alpha, 6alpha,6abeta,7beta, 7aalpha)-, & metabolites

     

     

    P044

     

    60-51-5

     

    Dimethoate

     

     

    P046

     

    122-09-8

     

    alpha,alpha-Dimethylphenethylamine

     

     

    P191

     

    644-64-4

     

    Dimetilan

     

     

    P047

     

    534-52-1

     

    4,6-Dinitro-o-cresol and salts

     

     

    P048

     

    51-28-5

     

    2,4-Dinitrophenol

     

     

    P020

     

    88-85-7

     

    Dinoseb

     

     

    P085

     

    152-18-9

     

    Diphosphoramide, octamethyl-

     

     

    P111

     

    107-49-3

     

    Diphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    P039

    298-04-4

    Disulfoton

     

     

    P049

     

    541-53-7

     

    2,4-Dithiobiuret

     

     

    P185

     

    26419-73-8

     

    1,3-Dithiolane-2-carboxaldehyde, 2-4- dimethyl-,                       O-[(methylamino)- carbonyl]oxime

     

     

    P050

     

    115-29-7

     

    Endosulfan

     

     

    P088

     

    145-73-7

     

    Endothall

     

     

    P051

     

    72-20-8

     

    Endrin

     

     

    P051

     

    72-20-8

     

    Endrin, and metabolites

     

     

    P042

     

    51-43-4

     

    Epinephrine

     

     

    P031

     

    460-19-5

     

    Ethanedinitrile

     

     

    P194

     

    23135-22-0

     

    Ethanimidothioic                  acid,                2- (dimethylamino)-N-[[(methylamino) carbonyl]oxy]-2-oxo-, methyl ester

     

     

    P066

     

    16752-77-5

     

    Ethanimidothioic                  acid,               N- [[(methylamine)carbonyl] oxyl]-, methyl ester

     

     

    P101

     

    107-12-0

     

    Ethyl cyanide

     

     

    P054

     

    151-58-4

     

    Ethyleneimine

     

     

    P097

     

    52-85-7

     

    Famphur

     

     

    P056

     

    7782-41-4

     

    Fluorine

     

     

    P057

     

    640-19-7

     

    Fluoroacetamide

     

     

    P058

     

    62-74-8

     

    Fluoroacetic acid, sodium salt

     

     

    P198

     

    23422-53-9

     

    Formetanate hydrochloride

     

     

    P197

     

    17702-57-7

     

    Formparanate

     

     

    P065

     

    628-86-4

     

    Fulminic acid, mercury (II) salt

     

    (R,T)

     

     

     

     

     

     

    P059

    76-44-8

    Heptachlor

     

     

    P062

     

    757-58-4

     

    Hexaethyl tetraphosphate

     

     

    P116

     

    79-19-6

     

    Hydrazinecarbothioamide

     

     

    P068

     

    60-34-4

     

    Hydrazine, methyl-

     

     

    P063

     

    74-90-8

     

    Hydrocyanic acid

     

     

    P063

     

    74-90-8

     

    Hydrogen cyanide

     

     

    P096

     

    7803-51-2

     

    Hydrogen phosphide

     

     

    P060

     

    465-73-6

     

    Isodrin

     

     

    P192

     

    119-38-0

     

    Isolan

     

     

    P202

     

    64-00-6

     

    3-Isopropylphenyl N-methylcarbamate

     

     

    P007

     

    2763-96-4

     

    3(2H)-Isoxazolone, 5-(aminomethyl)-

     

     

    P196

     

    15339-36-3

     

    Manganese, bis(dimethylcarbamodithioato-S,S')-,

     

     

    P196

     

    15339-36-3

     

    Manganese, dimethyldithiocarbamate

     

     

    P092

     

    62-38-4

     

    Mercury, (acetato-O)phenyl-

     

     

    P065

     

    628-86-4

     

    Mercury fulminate

     

    (R,T)

     

    P082

     

    62-75-9

     

    Methanamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-

     

     

    P064

     

    624-83-9

     

    Methane, isocyanato-

     

     

    P016

     

    542-88-1

     

    Methane, oxybis(chloro-

     

     

    P112

     

    509-14-8

     

    Methane, tetranitro-

     

    (R)

     

    P118

     

    75-70-7

     

    Methanethiol, trichloro-

     

     

    P198

     

    23422-53-9

     

    Methanimidamide,         N,N-dimethyl-N'-[3- [[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-, monohydrochloride

     

     

    P197

     

    17702-57-7

     

    Methanimidamide,         N,N-dimethyl-N'-[2-

     

     

     

     

     

    methyl-4- [[(methylamino)carbonyl]oxy]phenyl]-

     

     

    P050

     

    115-20-7

     

    6,9-Methano-2,4,3-benzodioxathiepin, 6,7,8,9,10,10-hexachloro-1,5,5a,6,9,9a- hexahydro-, 3-oxide

     

     

    P059

     

    76-44-8

     

    4,7-Methano-1H-indene,             1,4,5,6,7,8,8- heptachloro- 3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro-

     

     

    P199

     

    2032-65-7

     

    Methiocarb

     

     

    P066

     

    16752-77-5

     

    Methomyl

     

     

    P068

     

    60-34-4

     

    Methyl hydrazine

     

     

    P064

     

    624-83-9

     

    Methyl isocyanate

     

     

    P069

     

    75-86-5

     

    2-Methyllactonitrile

     

     

    P071

     

    298-00-0

     

    Methyl parathion

     

     

    P190

     

    1129-41-5

     

    Metolcarb

     

     

    P128

     

    315-18-4

     

    Mexacarbate

     

     

    P072

     

    86-88-4

     

    alpha-Naphthylthiourea

     

     

    P073

     

    13463-39-3

     

    Nickel carbonyl

     

     

    P073

     

    13463-39-3

     

    Nickel carbonyl Ni(CO)4, (T-4)-

     

     

    P074

     

    557-19-7

     

    Nickel cyanide

     

     

     

    P074

     

    557-19-7

     

    Nickel (II) cyanide

     

     

    P075

     

    54-11-5

     

    Nicotine and salts

     

     

    P076

     

    10102-43-9

     

    Nitric oxide

     

     

    P077

     

    100-01-6

     

    p-Nitroaniline

     

     

    P078

     

    10102-44-0

     

    Nitrogen dioxide

     

     

    P076

     

    10102-43-9

     

    Nitrogen (II) oxide

     

     

     

     

    P078

     

    10102-44-0

     

    Nitrogen (IV) oxide

     

     

    P081

     

    55-63-0

     

    Nitroglycerine

     

    (R)

     

    P082

     

    62-75-9

     

    N-Nitrosodimethylamine

     

     

    P084

     

    4549-40-0

     

    N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine

     

     

    P085

     

    152-16-9

     

    Octamethylpyrophosphor-amide

     

     

    P087

     

    20816-12-0

     

    Osmium oxide

     

     

    P087

     

    20816-12-0

     

    Osmium tetroxide

     

     

    P088

     

    145-73-3

     

    7-Oxabicyclo           [2.2.1]         heptane-2,3- dicarboxylic acid

     

     

    P194

     

    23135-22-0

     

    Oxamyl

     

     

    P089

     

    56-38-2

     

    Parathion

     

     

    P034

     

    131-89-5

     

    Phenol, 2-cyclohexyl-4,6-dinitro-

     

     

    P128

     

    315-18-4

     

    Phenol, 4-(dimethylamino)-3,5-dimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester)

     

     

    P199

     

    2032-65-7

     

    Phenol,         (3,5-dimethyl-4-(methylthio)-, methylcarbamate

     

     

    P048

     

    51-28-5

     

    Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-

     

     

    P047

     

    534-52-1

     

    Phenol, 2-methyl-4,6-dinitro- and salts

     

     

    P202

     

    64-00-6

     

    Phenol,         3-(1-methylethyl)-,            methyl carbamate

     

     

    P201

     

    2631-37-0

     

    Phenol,            3-methyl-5-(1-methylethyl)-, methyl carbamate

     

     

     

    P020

     

    88-85-7

     

    Phenol, 2,4-dinitro-6-(1-methylpropyl)-

     

     

    P009

     

    131-74-8

     

    Phenol, 2,4,6-trinitro-, ammonium salt

     

    (R)

     

    P092

     

    62-38-4

     

    Phenylmercuric acetate

     

     

     

     

    P093

     

    103-85-5

     

    N-Phenylthiourea

     

     

    P094

     

    298-02-2

     

    Phorate

     

     

    P095

     

    75-44-5

     

    Phosgene

     

     

    P096

     

    783-51-2

     

    Phosphine

     

     

    P041

     

    311-45-5

     

    Phosphoric      acid,    diethyl     p-nitrophenyl ester

     

     

    P039

     

    298-04-4

     

    Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-diethyl S-[2- (ethylthio)ethyl] ester

     

     

    P094

     

    298-02-2

     

    Phosphorodithioic  acid,  O,O-diethyl  S- [(ethylthio) methyl] ester

     

     

    P044

     

    60-51-5

     

    Phosphorodithioic acid, O,O-dimethyl S- O[2-(methylamino)-2-oxoethyl] ester

     

     

    P043

     

    55-91-4

     

    Phosphorofluoridic              acid,           bis(1- methylethyl)ester

     

     

    P089

     

    56-38-2

     

    Phosphorothioic  acid,  O,O-diethyl  O-(4- nitrophenyl) ester

     

     

    P040

     

    297-97-2

     

    Phosphorothioic       acid,     O,O-diethyl      O- pyrazinyl ester

     

     

    P097

     

    52-85-7

     

    Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-[p- ((dimethylamino) sulfonyl)phenyl] ester

     

     

    P071

     

    298-00-0

     

    Phosphorothioic acid, O,O-dimethyl O-(4- nitrophenyl) ester

     

     

    P204

     

    57-47-6

     

    Physostigmine

     

     

    P188

     

    57-64-7

     

    Physostigmine salicylate

     

     

    P110

     

    78-00-2

     

    Plumbane, tetraethyl-

     

     

    P098

     

    151-50-8

     

    Potassium cyanide

     

     

    P098

     

    151-50-8

     

    Potassium cyanide K(CN)

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    P099

    506-61-6

    Potassium silver cyanide

     

     

    P201

     

    2631-37-0

     

    Promecarb

     

     

    P203

     

    1646-88-4

     

    Propanal,       2-methyl-2-(methyl-sulfonyl)-

    ,O-[(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime

     

     

    P070

     

    116-06-3

     

    Propanal,      2-methyl-2-(methylthio)-,          O- [(methylamino)carbonyl] oxime

     

     

    P101

     

    107-12-0

     

    Propanenitrile

     

     

    P027

     

    542-76-7

     

    Propanenitrile, 3-chloro-

     

     

    P069

     

    75-86-5

     

    Propanenitrile, 2-hydroxy-2-methyl-

     

     

    P081

     

    55-63-0

     

    1,2,3-Propanetriol, trinitrate-

     

    (R)

     

    P017

     

    596-31-2

     

    2-Propanone, 1-bromo-

     

     

    P102

     

    107-19-7

     

    Propargyl alcohol

     

     

    P003

     

    107-02-8

     

    2-Propenal

     

     

    P005

     

    107-18-6

     

    2-Propen-1-o1

     

     

    P067

     

    75-55-8

     

    1,2-Propylenimine

     

     

    P102

     

    107-19-7

     

    2-Propyn-1-o1

     

     

    P008

     

    504-24-5

     

    4-Pyridinamine

     

     

    P075

     

    54-11-5

     

    Pyridine, (S)-3-(1-methyl-2-pyrrolidinyl)-, and salts

     

     

    P204

     

    57-47-6

     

    Pyrrolo[2,3-b]indol-5-ol,            1,2,3,3a,8,8a- hexahydro-1,3a,8-trimethyl-, methylcarbamate (ester), (3aS-cis)-

     

     

    P114

     

    12039-52-0

     

    Selenious acid, dithallium(1+) salt

     

     

    P103

     

    630-10-4

     

    Selenourea

     

     

    P104

     

    506-64-9

     

    Silver cyanide

     

     

    P104

     

    506-64-9

     

    Silver cyanide Ag(CN)

     

     

     

     

    P105

     

    26628-22-8

     

    Sodium azide

     

     

    P106

     

    143-33-9

     

    Sodium cyanide

     

     

     

    P106

     

    143-33-9

     

    Sodium cyanide Na(CN)

     

     

    P108

     

    57-24-9

     

    Strychnidin-10-one, and salts

     

     

    P018

     

    357-57-3

     

    Strychnidin-10-one, 2,3-dimethoxy-

     

     

    P108

     

    57-24-9

     

    Strychnine and salts

     

     

    P115

     

    7446-18-6

     

    Sulfuric acid, thallium (I) salt

     

     

    P109

     

    3689-24-5

     

    Tetraethyldithiopyrophosphate

     

     

    P110

     

    78-00-2

     

    Tetraethyl lead

     

     

    P111

     

    107-49-3

     

    Tetraethylpyrophosphate

     

     

    P112

     

    509-14-8

     

    Tetranitromethane

     

    (R)

     

    P062

     

    757-58-4

     

    Tetraphosphoric acid, hexaethyl ester

     

     

    P113

     

    1314-32-5

     

    Thallic oxide

     

     

    P113

     

    1314-32-5

     

    Thallium (III) oxide

     

     

    P114

     

    12039-52-0

     

    Thallium (I) selenide

     

     

    P115

     

    7446-18-6

     

    Thallium (I) sulfate

     

     

    P109

     

    3689-24-5

     

    Thiodiphosphoric acid, tetraethyl ester

     

     

    P045

     

    39196-18-4

     

    Thiofanox

     

     

    P049

     

    541-53-7

     

    Thioimidodicarbonic diamide

     

     

    P014

     

    108-98-5

     

    Thiophenol

     

     

    P116

     

    79-19-6

     

    Thiosemicarbazide

     

     

    P026

     

    5344-82-1

     

    Thiourea, (2-chlorophenyl)-

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    P072

    86-88-4

    Thiourea, 1-naphthalenyl-

     

     

    P093

     

    103-85-5

     

    Thiourea, phenyl-

     

     

    P185

     

    26419-73-8

     

    Tirpate

     

     

    P123

     

    8001-35-2

     

    Toxaphene

     

     

    P118

     

    75-70-7

     

    Trichloromethanethiol

     

     

     

    P119

     

    7803-55-6

     

    Vanadic acid, ammonium salt

     

     

    P120

     

    1314-62-1

     

    Vanadium (V) oxide

     

     

    P120

     

    1314-62-1

     

    Vanadium pentoxide

     

     

    P084

     

    4549-40-0

     

    Vinylamine, N-methyl-N-nitroso-

     

     

    P001

     

    81-81-2

     

    Warfarin, when present at concentrations greater than 0.3%

     

     

    P205

     

    137-30-4

     

    Zinc,          bis(dismethylcarbamodithioato- S,S')-

     

     

    P121

     

    557-21-1

     

    Zinc cyanide

     

     

    P121

     

    557-21-1

     

    Zinc cyanide Zn(CN)2

     

     

    P122

     

    1314-84-7

     

    Zinc      phosphide,       when      present       at concentrations greater than 10%

     

    (R,T)

     

    P205

     

    137-30-4

     

    Ziram

     

     

    R 299.9225  Table 205b; discarded commercial chemical products; off-specification species; container residues; and spill residues thereof as toxic hazardous wastes.

    Rule 225. Table 205b reads as follows:

     

    Table 205b

    EPA

    Hazardous Waste Number

    Chemical Abstract Services Number

     

    Substance

    Hazard Code

     

    U394

     

    30558-43-1

     

    A2213

     

     

    U001

     

    75-07-0

     

    Acetaldehyde

     

    (I)

     

     

     

    U034

     

    75-87-6

     

    Acetaldehyde, trichloro-

     

     

    U187

     

    62-44-2

     

    Acetamide, N-(4-ethoxyphenyl)-

     

     

    U005

     

    53-96-3

     

    Acetamide, N-9H-fluoren-2-y1-

     

     

    U240

     

    94-75-7

     

    Acetic  acid,  (2,4-dichlorophenoxy)-,  salts and esters

     

     

    U112

     

    141-78-6

     

    Acetic acid, ethyl ester

     

    (I)

     

    U144

     

    301-04-2

     

    Acetic acid, lead(2+) salt

     

     

    U214

     

    563-68-8

     

    Acetic acid, thallium(1+) salt

     

     

    See F027

     

    93-76-5

     

    Acetic acid, (2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy)-

     

     

    U002

     

    67-64-1

     

    Acetone

     

    (I)

     

    U003

     

    75-05-8

     

    Acetonitrile

     

    (I,T)

     

    U004

     

    98-86-2

     

    Acetophenone

     

     

    U005

     

    53-96-3

     

    2-Acetylaminofluorene

     

     

    U006

     

    75-36-5

     

    Acetyl chloride

     

    (C,R,T)

     

    U007

     

    79-06-1

     

    Acrylamide

     

     

    U008

     

    79-10-7

     

    Acrylic acid

     

    (I)

     

    U009

     

    107-13-1

     

    Acrylonitrile

     

     

    U011

     

    61-82-5

     

    Amitrole

     

     

    U012

     

    62-53-3

     

    Aniline

     

    (I,T)

     

    U136

     

    75-60-5

     

    Arsinic acid, dimethyl-

     

     

    U014

     

    492-80-8

     

    Auramine

     

     

    U015

     

    115-02-6

     

    Azaserine

     

     

    U010

     

    50-07-7

     

    Azirino(2',3':3,4)pyrrolo         (1,2-a)indole-4,7- dione,6-amino-8-[((aminocarbonyl)oxy)

     

     

     

     

     

    methyl]-1,1a,2,8,8a,8b                hexahydro-8a- methoxy-5-methyl-

     

     

    U280

     

    101-27-9

     

    Barban

     

     

    U278

     

    22781-23-3

     

    Bendiocarb

     

     

    U364

     

    22961-82-6

     

    Bendiocarb phenol

     

     

    U271

     

    17804-35-2

     

    Benomyl

     

     

    U157

     

    56-49-5

     

    Benz[j]aceanthrylene,                  1,2-dihydro-3- methyl-

     

     

    U016

     

    225-51-4

     

    Benz[c]acridine

     

     

    U017

     

    98-87-3

     

    Benzal chloride

     

     

    U192

     

    23950-58-5

     

    Benzamide,      3,5-dichloro-N-(1,1-dimethyl- 2-propynyl)-

     

     

    U018

     

    56-55-3

     

    Benz[a]anthracene

     

     

    U094

     

    57-97-6

     

    1,2-Benzanthracene, 7,12-dimethyl-

     

     

    U012

     

    62-53-3

     

    Benzenamine

     

    (I,T)

     

    U014

     

    492-80-8

     

    Benzenamine,       4,4'-carbonimidoylbis(N,N- dimethyl-

     

     

    U049

     

    3165-93-3

     

    Benzenamine, 4-chloro-2-methyl-

     

     

    U093

     

    60-11-7

     

    Benzenamine, N,N-dimethyl-4-(phenylazo)-

     

     

    U328

     

    95-53-4

     

    Benzenamine, 2-methyl-

     

     

    U353

     

    106-49-0

     

    Benzenamine, 4-methyl-

     

     

    U158

     

    101-14-4

     

    Benzenamine, 4,4'-methylenebis(2-chloro-

     

     

    U222

     

    636-21-5

     

    Benzenamine, 2-methyl-, hydrochloride

     

     

    U181

     

    99-55-8

     

    Benzenamine, 2-methyl-5-nitro

     

     

    U019

     

    71-43-2

     

    Benzene

     

    (I,T)

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U038

    510-15-8

    Benzeneacetic         acid,      4-chloro-alpha-(4- chlorophenyl)- alpha-hydroxy, ethyl ester

     

     

    U030

     

    101-55-3

     

    Benzene, 1-bromo-4-phenoxy-

     

     

    U035

     

    305-03-03

     

    Benzenebutanoic               acid,            4-[bis(2- chloroethyl)amino]-

     

     

    U037

     

    106-90-7

     

    Benzene, chloro-

     

     

    U221

     

    25376-45-8

     

    Benzenediamine, ar-methyl-

     

     

    U028

     

    117-81-7

     

    1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, [bis(2-ethyl- hexyl)] ester

     

     

    U069

     

    84-74-2

     

    1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, dibutyl ester

     

     

    U088

     

    84-66-2

     

    1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic acid, diethyl ester

     

     

    U102

     

    131-11-3

     

    1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic          acid,      dimethyl ester

     

     

    U107

     

    117-84-0

     

    1,2-Benzenedicarboxylic         acid,     di-n-octyl ester

     

     

    U070

     

    95-50-1

     

    Benzene, 1,2-dichloro-

     

     

    U071

     

    541-73-1

     

    Benzene, 1,3-dichloro-

     

     

    U072

     

    106-46-7

     

    Benzene, 1,4-dichloro-

     

     

    U060

     

    72-54-8

     

    Benzene,                                            1,1'-(2,2-

    dichloroethylidene)bis=[4-chloro-

     

     

    U017

     

    98-87-3

     

    Benzene (dichloromethyl)-

     

     

    U223

     

    26471-62-5

     

    Benzene, 1,3-diisocyanatomethyl-

     

    (R,T)

     

    U239

     

    1330-20-7

     

    Benzene, dimethyl-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U201

     

    108-46-3

     

    1,3-Benzenediol

     

     

    U127

     

    118-74-1

     

    Benzene, hexachloro-

     

     

    U056

     

    110-82-7

     

    Benzene, hexahydro-

     

    (I)

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U220

    108-88-3

    Benzene, methyl-

     

     

    U105

     

    121-14-2

     

    Benzene, 1-methyl-2,4-dinitro-

     

     

    U106

     

    606-20-2

     

    Benzene, 1-methyl-2,6-dinitro-

     

     

    U055

     

    98-82-8

     

    Benzene, (1-methylethyl)-

     

    (I)

     

    U169

     

    98-95-3

     

    Benzene, nitro-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U183

     

    608-93-5

     

    Benzene, pentachloro-

     

     

    U185

     

    82-68-8

     

    Benzene, pentachloronitro-

     

     

    U020

     

    98-09-9

     

    Benzenesulfonic acid chloride

     

    (C,R)

     

    U020

     

    98-09-9

     

    Benzenesulfonyl chloride

     

    (C,R)

     

    U207

     

    95-94-3

     

    Benzene, 1,2,4,5-tetrachloro-

     

     

    U061

     

    50-29-3

     

    Benzene,                                         1,1'-(2,2,2-

    trichloroethylidene)=bis [4-chloro-

     

     

    U247

     

    72-43-5

     

    Benzene,                                         1,1'-(2,2,2-

    trichloroethylidene)=bis [4-methoxy-

     

     

    U023

     

    98-07-7

     

    Benzene, (trichloromethyl)-

     

    (C,R,T)

     

    U234

     

    99-35-4

     

    Benzene, 1,3,5-trinitro-

     

    (R,T)

     

    U021

     

    92-87-5

     

    Benzidine

     

     

    U202

     

    81-07-2

     

    1,2-Benzisothiazol-3-(2H)-one,  1,1-dioxide and salts

     

     

    U278

     

    22781-23-3

     

    1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-, methyl carbamate

     

     

    U364

     

    22961-82-6

     

    1,3-Benzodioxol-4-ol, 2,2-dimethyl-,

     

     

    U203

     

    94-59-7

     

    1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(2-propenyl)-

     

     

    U141

     

    120-58-1

     

    1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-(1-propenyl)-

     

     

    U090

     

    94-58-6

     

    1,3-Benzodioxole, 5-propyl-

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U367

    1563-38-8

    7-Benzofuranol, 2,3-dihydro-2,2-dimethyl-

     

     

    U064

     

    189-55-9

     

    Benzo[rst]pentaphene

     

     

    U248

     

    81-81-2

     

    2H-1-Benzopyran-2-one, 4-hydroxy-3-(3- oxo-1-phenylbutyl)-, and salts, when present at concentrations of 0.3% or less

     

     

    U022

     

    50-32-8

     

    Benzo[a]pyrene

     

     

    U197

     

    106-51-4

     

    p-Benzoquinone

     

     

    U023

     

    98-07-7

     

    Benzotrichloride

     

    (C,R,T)

     

    U085

     

    1464-53-5

     

    2,2'-Bioxirane

     

    (I,T)

     

    U021

     

    92-87-5

     

    (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine

     

     

    U073

     

    91-94-1

     

    (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dichloro-

     

     

    U091

     

    119-90-4

     

    (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine,                        3,3'- dimethoxy-

     

     

    U095

     

    119-93-7

     

    (1,1'-Biphenyl)-4,4'-diamine, 3,3'-dimethyl-

     

     

    U225

     

    75-25-2

     

    Bromoform

     

     

    U030

     

    101-55-3

     

    4-Bromophenyl phenyl ether

     

     

    U128

     

    87-68-3

     

    1,3-Butadiene, 1,1,2,3,4,4-hexachloro-

     

     

    U172

     

    924-16-3

     

    1-Butanamine, N-butyl-N-nitroso-

     

     

    U031

     

    71-36-3

     

    1-Butanol

     

    (I)

     

    U159

     

    78-93-3

     

    2-Butanone

     

    (I,T)

     

    U160

     

    1338-23-4

     

    2-Butanone peroxide

     

    (R,T)

     

    U053

     

    4170-30-3

     

    2-Butenal

     

     

    U074

     

    764-41-0

     

    2-Butene, 1,4-dichloro-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U143

     

    303-34-4

     

    2-Butenoic        acid,       2-methyl-,        7-[[2,3- dihydroxy-2-(1-methoxyethyl)-3-methyl-1- oxybutoyx]methyl]-2,3,5,7a-tetrahydro-1H-

     

     

     

     

     

    pyrrolizin-1-y1                    ester,                 [1S- [1alpha(Z),7(2S*,3R*), 7aalpha]]-

     

     

    U031

     

    71-36-3

     

    n-Butyl alcohol

     

    (I)

     

    U136

     

    75-60-5

     

    Cacodylic acid

     

     

    U032

     

    13765-19-0

     

    Calcium chromate

     

     

    U372

     

    10605-21-7

     

    Carbamic        acid,       1H-benzimidazol-2-yl, methyl ester

     

     

    U271

     

    17804-35-2

     

    Carbamic  acid,  [1-[(butylamino)carbonyl]- 1H-benzimidazol-2-yl]-, methyl ester

     

     

    U280

     

    101-27-9

     

    Carbamic acid, (3-chlorophenyl)-, 4-chloro- 2-butynyl ester

     

     

    U238

     

    51-79-6

     

    Carbamic acid, ethyl ester

     

     

    U178

     

    815-53-2

     

    Carbamic acid, methylnitroso-, ethyl ester

     

     

    U373

     

    122-42-9

     

    Carbamic acid, phenyl-, 1-methylethyl ester

     

     

    U409

     

    23564-05-8

     

    Carbamic                       acid,                     [1,2- phenylenebis(iminocarbonothioyl)]bis-, dimethyl ester

     

     

    U097

     

    79-44-7

     

    Carbamic chloride, dimethyl

     

     

    U114

     

    111-54-6

     

    Carbamodithioic       acid,    1,2-ethanediylbis-, salts and esters

     

     

    U062

     

    2303-16-4

     

    Carbamodithioic  acid,  bis(1-methylethyl)-, S-(2,3-dichloro-2-propenyl) ester

     

     

    U389

     

    2303-17-5

     

    Carbamothioic acid, bis(1-methylethyl)-, S- (2,3,3-trichloro-2-propenyl) ester

     

     

    U387

     

    52888-80-9

     

    Carbamothioic          acid,        dipropyl-,         S- (phenylmethyl) ester

     

     

    U279

     

    63-25-2

     

    Carbaryl

     

     

    U372

     

    10605-21-7

     

    Carbendazim

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U367

    1563-38-8

    Carbofuran phenol

     

     

    U215

     

    6533-73-9

     

    Carbonic acid, dithallium(1+) salt

     

     

    U156

     

    79-22-1

     

    Carbonochloridic acid, methyl ester

     

    (I,T)

     

    U033

     

    353-50-4

     

    Carbon oxyfluoride

     

    (R,T)

     

    U211

     

    56-23-5

     

    Carbon tetrachloride

     

     

    U034

     

    75-87-6

     

    Chloral

     

     

    U035

     

    305-03-3

     

    Chlorambucil

     

     

    U036

     

    57-74-9

     

    Chlordane, technical

     

     

    U026

     

    494-03-1

     

    Chlornaphazine

     

     

    U037

     

    108-90-7

     

    Chlorobenzene

     

     

    U038

     

    510-15-6

     

    Chlorobenzilate

     

     

    U039

     

    59-50-7

     

    4-Chloro-m-cresol

     

     

    U042

     

    110-75-8

     

    2-Chloroethyl vinyl ether

     

     

    U044

     

    67-66-3

     

    Chloroform

     

     

    U046

     

    107-30-2

     

    Chloromethyl methyl ether

     

     

    U047

     

    91-58-7

     

    beta-Chloronaphthalene

     

     

    U048

     

    95-57-8

     

    o-Chlorophenol

     

     

    U049

     

    3165-93-3

     

    4-Chloro-o-toluidine, hydrochloride

     

     

    U032

     

    13765-19-0

     

    Chromic acid, calcium salt

     

     

    U050

     

    218-01-9

     

    Chrysene

     

     

    U051

     

    ------

     

    Creosote

     

     

    U052

     

    1319-77-3

     

    Cresylic acid

     

     

    U053

     

    4170-30-3

     

    Crotonaldehyde

     

     

     

     

    U055

     

    98-82-8

     

    Cumene

     

    (I)

     

    U246

     

    506-68-3

     

    Cyanogen bromide

     

     

    U197

     

    106-51-4

     

    1,4-Cyclohexadienedione

     

     

    U056

     

    110-82-7

     

    Cyclohexane

     

    (I)

     

    U129

     

    58-89-9

     

    Cyclohexane,              1,2,3,4,5,6-hexachloro-, (1alpha, 2alpha,3beta,4alpha, 5alpha,6beta)-

     

     

    U057

     

    108-94-1

     

    Cyclohexanone

     

    (I)

     

    U130

     

    77-47-4

     

    1,3-Cyclopentadiene,              1,2,3,4,5,5-hexa- chloro-

     

     

    U058

     

    50-18-0

     

    Cyclophosphamide

     

     

    U240

     

    94-75-7

     

    2,4-D, salts and esters

     

     

    U059

     

    20830-81-3

     

    Daunomycin

     

     

    U060

     

    72-54-8

     

    DDD

     

     

    U061

     

    50-29-3

     

    DDT

     

     

    U062

     

    2303-16-4

     

    Diallate

     

     

    U063

     

    53-70-3

     

    Dibenz[a,h]anthracene

     

     

    U064

     

    189-55-9

     

    Dibenz[a,i]pyrene

     

     

    U066

     

    96-12-8

     

    1,2-Dibromo-3-chloropropane

     

     

    U069

     

    84-74-2

     

    Dibutyl phthalate

     

     

    U070

     

    95-50-1

     

    o-Dichlorobenzene

     

     

    U071

     

    541-73-1

     

    m-Dichlorobenzene

     

     

    U072

     

    106-46-7

     

    p-Dichlorobenzene

     

     

    U073

     

    91-94-1

     

    3,3'-Dichlorobenzidine

     

     

    U074

     

    764-41-0

     

    1,4-Dichloro-2-butene

     

    (I,T)

     

     

     

    U075

     

    75-71-8

     

    Dichlorodifluoromethane

     

     

    U078

     

    75-35-4

     

    1,1-Dichloroethylene

     

     

    U079

     

    156-60-5

     

    1,2-Dichloroethylene

     

     

    U025

     

    111-44-4

     

    Dichloroethyl ether

     

     

    U027

     

    108-60-1

     

    Dichloroisopropyl ether

     

     

    U024

     

    111-91-7

     

    Dichloromethoxy ethane

     

     

    U081

     

    120-83-2

     

    2,4-Dichlorophenol

     

     

    U082

     

    87-65-0

     

    2,6-Dichlorophenol

     

     

    U084

     

    542-75-6

     

    1,3-Dichloropropene

     

     

    U085

     

    1464-53-5

     

    1,2:3,4-Diepoxybutane

     

    (I,T)

     

    U108

     

    123-91-1

     

    1,4-Diethylene dioxide

     

     

    U395

     

    5952-26-1

     

    Diethylene glycol, dicarbamate

     

     

    U028

     

    117-81-7

     

    Diethylhexyl phthalate

     

     

    U086

     

    1615-80-1

     

    N,N-Diethylhydrazine

     

     

    U087

     

    3288-58-2

     

    O,O-Diethyl-S-methyl-dithiophosphate

     

     

    U088

     

    84-66-2

     

    Diethyl phthalate

     

     

    U089

     

    56-53-1

     

    Diethylstilbestrol

     

     

    U090

     

    94-58-6

     

    Dihydrosafrole

     

     

    U091

     

    119-90-4

     

    3,3'-dimethoxybenzidine

     

     

    U092

     

    124-40-3

     

    Dimethylamine

     

    (I)

     

    U093

     

    60-11-7

     

    Dimethylaminoazobenzene

     

     

    U094

     

    57-97-6

     

    7,12-Dimethylbenz[a]anthracene

     

     

    U095

     

    119-93-7

     

    3,3'-Dimethylbenzidine

     

     

     

     

    U096

     

    80-15-9

     

    Alpha,alpha-Dimethyl-benzylhydroperoxide

     

    (R)

     

    U097

     

    79-44-7

     

    Dimethylcarbamoyl chloride

     

     

    U098

     

    57-14-7

     

    1,1-Dimethylhydrazine

     

     

    U099

     

    540-73-8

     

    1,2-Dimethylhydrazine

     

     

    U101

     

    105-67-9

     

    2,4-Dimethylphenol

     

     

    U102

     

    131-11-3

     

    Dimethyl phthalate

     

     

    U103

     

    77-78-1

     

    Dimethyl sulfate

     

     

    U105

     

    121-14-2

     

    2,4-Dinitrotoluene

     

     

    U106

     

    606-20-2

     

    2,6-Dinitrotoluene

     

     

    U107

     

    117-84-0

     

    Di-n-octyl phthalate

     

     

    U108

     

    123-91-1

     

    1,4-Dioxane

     

     

    U109

     

    122-66-7

     

    1,2-Diphenylhydrazine

     

     

    U110

     

    142-84-7

     

    Dipropylamine

     

    (I)

     

    U111

     

    621-64-7

     

    Di-n-propylnitrosamine

     

     

    U041

     

    106-89-8

     

    Epichlorhydrin

     

     

    U001

     

    75-07-0

     

    Ethanal

     

    (I)

     

    U174

     

    55-18-5

     

    Ethanamine, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-

     

     

    U404

     

    121-44-8

     

    Ethanamine, N,N-diethyl-

     

     

    U155

     

    91-80-5

     

    1,2-Ethanediamine,            N,N-dimethyl-N'-2- pyridinyl-N'-(2-thienylmethyl)-

     

     

    U067

     

    106-93-4

     

    Ethane, 1,2-dibromo-

     

     

    U076

     

    75-34-3

     

    Ethane, 1,1-dichloro-

     

     

    U077

     

    107-06-2

     

    Ethane, 1,2-dichloro-

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U131

    67-72-1

    Ethane, 1,1,1,2,2,2-hexachloro-

     

     

    U024

     

    111-91-1

     

    Ethane,            1,1'-[methylenebis(oxy)]bis[2- chloro-

     

     

    U117

     

    60-29-7

     

    Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis-

     

    (I)

     

    U025

     

    111-44-4

     

    Ethane, 1,1'-oxybis[2-chloro-

     

     

    U184

     

    76-01-7

     

    Ethane, pentachloro-

     

     

    U208

     

    630-20-6

     

    Ethane, 1,1,1,2-tetrachloro-

     

     

    U209

     

    79-34-5

     

    Ethane, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-

     

     

    U218

     

    62-55-5

     

    Ethanethioamide

     

     

    U226

     

    71-55-6

     

    Ethane, 1,1,1-trichloro-

     

     

    U227

     

    79-00-5

     

    Ethane, 1,1,2-trichloro-

     

     

    U410

     

    59669-26-0

     

    Ethanimidothioic                 acid,                                          N,N'- [thiobis[(methylimino)carbonyloxy]]bis-, dimethyl ester

     

     

    U394

     

    30558-43-1

     

    Ethanimidothioic acid, 2-(dimethylamino)- n-hydroxy-2-oxo- methyl ester

     

     

    U359

     

    110-80-5

     

    Ethanol, 2-ethoxy-

     

     

    U173

     

    1116-54-7

     

    Ethanol, 2,2'-(nitrosoimino)bis-

     

     

    U395

     

    5952-26-1

     

    Ethanol, 2,2'-oxybis-, dicarbamate

     

     

    U004

     

    98-86-2

     

    Ethanone, 1-phenyl

     

     

    U043

     

    75-01-4

     

    Ethene, chloro-

     

     

    U042

     

    110-75-8

     

    Ethene, 2-chloroethoxy-

     

     

    U078

     

    75-35-4

     

    Ethene, 1,1-dichloro-

     

     

    U079

     

    156-60-5

     

    Ethene, trans-1,2-dichloro-

     

     

    U210

     

    127-18-4

     

    Ethene, 1,1,2,2-tetrachloro-

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U228

    79-01-6

    Ethene, trichloro-

     

     

    U112

     

    141-78-8

     

    Ethyl acetate

     

    (I)

     

    U113

     

    140-88-5

     

    Ethyl acrylate

     

    (I)

     

    U238

     

    51-79-6

     

    Ethyl carbamate (urethan)

     

     

    U117

     

    60-29-7

     

    Ethyl ether

     

    (I)

     

    U114

     

    111-54-6

     

    Ethylenebis(dithiocarbamic acid), salts and ester

     

     

    U067

     

    106-93-4

     

    Ethylene dibromide

     

     

    U077

     

    107-06-2

     

    Ethylene dichloride

     

     

    U359

     

    110-80-5

     

    Ethylene glycol monoethyl ether

     

     

    U115

     

    75-21-8

     

    Ethylene oxide

     

    (I,T)

     

    U116

     

    96-45-7

     

    Ethylene thiourea

     

     

    U076

     

    75-34-3

     

    Ethylidene dichloride

     

     

    U118

     

    97-63-2

     

    Ethyl methacrylate

     

     

    U119

     

    62-50-0

     

    Ethyl methanesulfonate

     

     

    U120

     

    206-44-0

     

    Fluoranthene

     

     

    U122

     

    50-00-0

     

    Formaldehyde

     

     

    U123

     

    64-18-6

     

    Formic acid

     

    (C,T)

     

    U124

     

    110-00-9

     

    Furan

     

    (I)

     

    U125

     

    98-01-1

     

    2-Furancarboxaldehyde

     

    (I)

     

    U147

     

    108-31-6

     

    2,5-Furandione

     

     

    U213

     

    109-99-9

     

    Furan, tetrahydro-

     

    (I)

     

    U125

     

    98-01-1

     

    Furfural

     

    (I)

     

    U124

     

    110-00-9

     

    Furfuran

     

    (I)

     

     

     

    U206

     

    18883-66-4

     

    Glucopyranose,            2-deoxy-2-(3-methyl-3- nitrosoureido)-, D-

     

     

    U206

     

    18883-66-4

     

    D-Glucose,                                      2-deoxy-2- [[(methylnitrosoamino) carbonyl]amino]-

     

     

    U126

     

    765-34-4

     

    Glycidylaldehyde

     

     

    U163

     

    70-25-7

     

    Guanidine, N-methyl-N'-nitro-N-nitroso-

     

     

    U127

     

    118-74-1

     

    Hexachlorobenzene

     

     

    U128

     

    87-68-3

     

    Hexachlorobutadiene

     

     

    U130

     

    77-47-4

     

    Hexachlorocyclopentadiene

     

     

    U131

     

    67-72-1

     

    Hexachloroethane

     

     

    U132

     

    70-30-4

     

    Hexachlorphene

     

     

    U243

     

    1888-71-7

     

    Hexachloropropene

     

     

    U133

     

    302-01-2

     

    Hydrazine

     

    (R,T)

     

    U086

     

    1615-80-1

     

    Hydrazine, 1,2-diethyl-

     

     

    U098

     

    57-14-7

     

    Hydrazine, 1,1-dimethyl-

     

     

    U099

     

    540-73-8

     

    Hydrazine, 1,2-dimethyl-

     

     

    U109

     

    122-66-7

     

    Hydrazine, 1,2-diphenyl-

     

     

    U134

     

    7664-39-3

     

    Hydrofluoric acid

     

    (C,T)

     

    U134

     

    7664-39-3

     

    Hydrogen fluoride

     

    (C,T)

     

    U135

     

    7783-06-4

     

    Hydrogen sulfide

     

     

    U135

     

    7783-06-4

     

    Hydrogen sulfide H2S

     

     

    U096

     

    80-15-9

     

    Hydroperoxide, 1-methyl-1-phenylethyl-

     

    (R)

     

    U116

     

    96-45-7

     

    2-Imidazolidinethione

     

     

    U137

     

    193-39-5

     

    Indeno[1,2,3cd]pyrene

     

     

     

     

    U190

     

    85-44-9

     

    1,3-Isobenzofurandione

     

     

    U140

     

    78-83-1

     

    Isobutyl alcohol

     

    (I,T)

     

    U141

     

    120-58-1

     

    Isosafrole

     

     

    U142

     

    143-50-0

     

    Kepone

     

     

    U143

     

    303-34-4

     

    Lasiocarpine

     

     

    U144

     

    301-04-2

     

    Lead acetate

     

     

    U146

     

    1335-32-6

     

    Lead, bis(acetato-O) tetrahydroxytri-

     

     

    U145

     

    7446-27-7

     

    Lead phosphate

     

     

    U146

     

    1335-32-6

     

    Lead subacetate

     

     

    U129

     

    58-89-9

     

    Lindane

     

     

    U163

     

    70-25-7

     

    MNNG

     

     

    U147

     

    108-31-6

     

    Maleic anhydride

     

     

    U148

     

    123-33-1

     

    Maleic hydrazide

     

     

    U149

     

    109-77-3

     

    Malononitrile

     

     

    U150

     

    148-82-3

     

    Melphalan

     

     

    U151

     

    7439-97-6

     

    Mercury

     

     

    U152

     

    126-98-7

     

    Methacrylonitrile

     

    (I,T)

     

    U092

     

    124-40-3

     

    Methanamine, N-methyl-

     

    (I)

     

    U029

     

    74-83-9

     

    Methane, bromo-

     

     

    U045

     

    74-87-3

     

    Methane, chloro-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U046

     

    107-30-2

     

    Methane, chloromethoxy-

     

     

    U068

     

    74-95-3

     

    Methane, dibromo-

     

     

    U080

     

    75-09-2

     

    Methane, dichloro-

     

     

     

     

    U075

     

    75-71-8

     

    Methane, dichlorodifluoro-

     

     

    U138

     

    74-88-4

     

    Methane, iodo-

     

     

    U119

     

    62-50-0

     

    Methanesulfonic acid, ethyl ester

     

     

    U211

     

    56-23-5

     

    Methane, tetrachloro-

     

     

    U153

     

    74-93-1

     

    Methanethiol

     

    (I,T)

     

    U225

     

    75-25-2

     

    Methane, tribromo-

     

     

    U044

     

    67-66-3

     

    Methane, trichloro-

     

     

    U121

     

    75-69-4

     

    Methane, trichlorofluoro-

     

     

    U036

     

    57-74-9

     

    4,7-Methanoindan,                     1,2,4,5,6,7,8,8- octachloro-3a,4,7,7a-tetrahydro

     

     

    U154

     

    67-56-1

     

    Methanol

     

    (I)

     

    U155

     

    91-80-5

     

    Methapyrilene

     

     

    U142

     

    143-50-0

     

    1,3,4-Metheneo-2H-cyclobuta[cd]pentalen- 2-one,1,1a,3,3a,4,5,5,5a,5b,6-

    decachlorooctahydro-

     

     

    U247

     

    72-43-5

     

    Methoxychlor

     

     

    U154

     

    67-56-1

     

    Methyl alcohol

     

    (I)

     

    U029

     

    74-83-9

     

    Methyl bromide

     

     

    U186

     

    504-60-9

     

    1-Methylbutadiene

     

    (I)

     

    U045

     

    74-87-3

     

    Methyl chloride

     

    (I,T)

     

    U156

     

    79-22-1

     

    Methyl chlorocarbonate

     

    (I,T)

     

    U226

     

    71-55-6

     

    Methylchloroform

     

     

    U157

     

    56-49-5

     

    3-Methylcholanthrene

     

     

    U158

     

    101-14-4

     

    4,4'-Methylenebis(2-chloroaniline)

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U068

    74-95-3

    Methylene bromide

     

     

    U080

     

    75-09-2

     

    Methylene chloride

     

     

    U159

     

    78-93-3

     

    Methyl ethyl ketone

     

    (I,T)

     

    U160

     

    1338-23-4

     

    Methyl ethyl ketone peroxide

     

    (R,T)

     

    U138

     

    74-88-4

     

    Methyl iodide

     

     

    U161

     

    108-10-1

     

    Methyl isobutyl ketone

     

    (I)

     

    U162

     

    80-62-6

     

    Methyl methacrylate

     

    (I,T)

     

    U161

     

    108-10-1

     

    4-Methyl-2-pentanone

     

    (I)

     

    U164

     

    56-04-2

     

    Methylthiouracil

     

     

    U010

     

    50-07-7

     

    Mitomycin

     

    (C)

     

    U059

     

    20830-81-3

     

    5,12-Naphthacenedione,         (8S-cis)-8-acetyl- 10-[(3-amino-2,3,6-trideoxy-alpha-L- lyxohexopyranosyl)oxyl]-                      7,8,9,10- tetrahydro-6,8,11-trihydroxy-1-methoxy-

     

     

    U167

     

    134-32-7

     

    1-Naphthalenamine

     

     

    U168

     

    91-59-8

     

    2-Naphthalenamine

     

     

    U026

     

    494-03-1

     

    Naphthalenamine, N,N'-bis(2-chloroethyl)-

     

     

    U165

     

    91-20-3

     

    Naphthalene

     

     

    U047

     

    91-58-7

     

    Naphthalene, 2-chloro-

     

     

    U166

     

    130-15-4

     

    1,4-Naphthalenedione

     

     

    U236

     

    72-57-1

     

    2,7-Naphthalenedisulfonic  acid,  3,3'-[(3,3'- dimethyl-(1,1-biphenyl)-4,4'diyl)]- bis(azo)bis                                   (5-amino-4-hydroxy)-, tetrasodium salt

     

     

    U279

     

    63-25-2

     

    1-Naphthalenol, methylcarbamate

     

     

    U166

     

    130-15-4

     

    1,4-Naphthoquinone

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U167

    134-32-7

    alpha-Naphthylamine

     

     

    U168

     

    91-59-8

     

    beta-Naphthylamine

     

     

    U217

     

    10102-45-1

     

    Nitric acid, thallium(1+) salt

     

     

    U169

     

    98-95-3

     

    Nitrobenzene

     

    (I,T)

     

    U170

     

    100-02-7

     

    p-Nitrophenol

     

     

    U171

     

    79-46-9

     

    2-Nitropropane

     

    (I,T)

     

    U172

     

    924-16-3

     

    N-Nitrosodi-n-butylamine

     

     

    U173

     

    1116-54-7

     

    N-Nitrosodiethanolamine

     

     

    U174

     

    55-18-5

     

    N-Nitrosodiethylamine

     

     

    U176

     

    759-73-9

     

    N-Nitroso-N-ethylurea

     

     

    U177

     

    684-93-5

     

    N-Nitroso-N-methylurea

     

     

    U178

     

    615-53-2

     

    N-Nitroso-N-methylurethane

     

     

    U179

     

    100-75-4

     

    N-Nitrosopiperidine

     

     

    U180

     

    930-55-2

     

    N-Nitrosopyrrolidine

     

     

    U181

     

    99-55-8

     

    5-Nitro-o-toluidine

     

     

    U193

     

    1120-71-4

     

    1,2-Oxathiolane, 2,2-dioxide

     

     

    U058

     

    50-18-0

     

    2H-1,3,2-Oxazaphosphorin,  2-amine,  N,N- bis(2-chloroethyl) tetrahydro-, 2-oxide

     

     

    U115

     

    75-21-8

     

    Oxirane

     

    (I,T)

     

    U126

     

    765-34-4

     

    Oxiranecarboxyaldehyde

     

     

    U041

     

    106-89-8

     

    Oxirane, 2-(chloromethyl)-

     

     

    U182

     

    123-63-7

     

    Paraldehyde

     

     

    U183

     

    608-93-5

     

    Pentachlorobenzene

     

     

    U184

     

    76-01-7

     

    Pentachloroethane

     

     

     

     

    U185

     

    82-68-8

     

    Pentachloronitrobenzene

     

     

    See F027

     

    87-86-5

     

    Pentachlorophenol

     

     

    U161

     

    108-10-1

     

    Pentanonl, 4-methyl-

     

     

    U186

     

    504-60-9

     

    1,3-Pentadiene

     

    (I)

     

    U187

     

    62-44-2

     

    Phenacetin

     

     

    U188

     

    108-95-2

     

    Phenol

     

     

    U048

     

    95-57-8

     

    Phenol, 2-chloro-

     

     

    U039

     

    59-50-7

     

    Phenol, 4-chloro-3-methyl-

     

     

    U081

     

    120-83-2

     

    Phenol, 2,4-dichloro-

     

     

    U082

     

    87-65-0

     

    Phenol, 2,6-dichloro-

     

     

    U089

     

    56-53-1

     

    Phenol, 4,4'-(1,2-diethyl-1,2-ethenediyl)bis-

    , (E)-

     

     

    U101

     

    105-67-9

     

    Phenol, 2,4-dimethyl-

     

     

    U052

     

    1319-77-3

     

    Phenol, methyl-

     

     

    U132

     

    70-30-4

     

    Phenol, 2,2'-methylenebis[3,4,6-trichloro-

     

     

    U411

     

    114-26-1

     

    Phenol,                           2-(1-methylethoxy)-, methylcarbamate

     

     

    U170

     

    100-02-7

     

    Phenol, 4-nitro-

     

     

    See F027

     

    87-86-5

     

    Phenol, pentachloro-

     

     

    See F027

     

    58-90-2

     

    Phenol, 2,3,4,6-tetrachloro-

     

     

    See F027

     

    95-95-4

     

    Phenol, 2,4,5-trichloro-

     

     

    See F027

     

    88-06-2

     

    Phenol, 2,4,6-trichloro-

     

     

    U150

     

    148-82-3

     

    L-Phenylalanine,                                  4-[bis(2- chloroethyl)amino]-

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U145

    7446-27-7

    Phosphoric acid, lead salt

     

     

    U087

     

    3288-58-2

     

    Phosphorodithioic          acid,       0,0-diethyl-S- methyl ester

     

     

    U189

     

    1314-80-3

     

    Phosphorus sulfide

     

    (R)

     

    U190

     

    85-44-9

     

    Phthalic anhydride

     

     

    U191

     

    109-06-8

     

    2-Picoline

     

     

    U179

     

    100-75-4

     

    Piperidine, 1-nitroso-

     

     

    U192

     

    23950-58-5

     

    Pronamide

     

     

    U194

     

    107-10-8

     

    1-Propanamine

     

    (I,T)

     

    U111

     

    621-64-7

     

    1,Propanamine, N-nitroso-N-propyl-

     

     

    U110

     

    142-84-7

     

    1-Propanamine, N-propyl-

     

    (I)

     

    U066

     

    96-12-8

     

    Propane, 1,2-dibromo-3-chloro-

     

     

    U083

     

    78-87-5

     

    Propane, 1,2-dichloro-

     

     

    U149

     

    109-77-3

     

    Propanedinitrile

     

     

    U171

     

    79-46-9

     

    Propane, 2-nitro-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U027

     

    108-60-1

     

    Propane, 2,2'oxybis[2-chloro-

     

     

    U193

     

    1120-71-4

     

    1,3-Propane sultone

     

     

    See F027

     

    93-72-1

     

    Propionic acid, 2-(2,4,5-trichlorphenoxy)-

     

     

    U235

     

    126-72-7

     

    1-Propanol, 2,3-dibromo-, phosphate (3:1)

     

     

    U140

     

    78-83-1

     

    1-Propanol, 2-methyl-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U002

     

    67-64-1

     

    2-Propanone

     

    (I)

     

    U007

     

    79-06-1

     

    2-Propenamide

     

     

    U084

     

    542-75-6

     

    Propene, 1,3-dichloro-

     

     

    U243

     

    1888-71-7

     

    1-Propene, 1,1,2,3,3,3-hexachloro-

     

     

     

     

    U009

     

    107-13-1

     

    2-Propenenitrile

     

     

    U152

     

    126-98-7

     

    2-Propenenitrile, 2-methyl-

     

    (I,T)

     

    U008

     

    79-10-7

     

    2-Propenoic acid

     

    (I)

     

    U113

     

    140-88-5

     

    2-Propenoic acid, ethyl ester

     

    (I)

     

    U118

     

    97-63-2

     

    2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, ethyl ester

     

     

    U162

     

    80-62-6

     

    2-Propenoic acid, 2-methyl-, methyl ester

     

    (I,T)

     

    U373

     

    122-42-9

     

    Propham

     

     

    U411

     

    114-26-1

     

    Propoxur

     

     

    U194

     

    107-10-8

     

    n-Propylamine

     

    (I,T)

     

    U083

     

    78-87-5

     

    Propylene dichloride

     

     

    U387

     

    52888-80-9

     

    Prosulfocarb

     

     

    U148

     

    123-33-1

     

    3,6-Pyridazinedione, 1,2-dihydro-

     

     

    U196

     

    110-86-1

     

    Pyridine

     

     

    U191

     

    109-06-8

     

    Pyridine, 2-methyl-

     

     

    U237

     

    66-75-1

     

    2,4-(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione,               5-[bis(2- chloroethyl)amino]-

     

     

    U164

     

    56-04-2

     

    4(1H)-Pyrimidinone, 2,3-dihydro-6-methyl- 2-thioxo-

     

     

    U180

     

    930-55-2

     

    Pyrrole, tetrahydro-N-nitroso-

     

     

    U200

     

    50-55-5

     

    Reserpine

     

     

    U201

     

    108-46-3

     

    Resorcinol

     

     

    U202

     

    81-07-2

     

    Saccharin and salts

     

     

    U203

     

    94-59-7

     

    Safrole

     

     

    U204

     

    7783-00-8

     

    Selenious acid

     

     

     

     

    U204

     

    7783-00-8

     

    Selenium dioxide

     

     

    U205

     

    7488-56-4

     

    Selenium sulfide

     

     

    U205

     

    7488-56-4

     

    Selenium sulfide SeS2

     

    (R,T)

     

    U015

     

    115-02-6

     

    L-Serine, diazoacetate (ester)

     

     

    See F027

     

    93-72-1

     

    Silvex

     

     

    U206

     

    18883-66-4

     

    Streptozotocin

     

     

    U103

     

    77-78-1

     

    Sulfuric acid, dimethyl ester

     

     

    U189

     

    1314-80-3

     

    Sulfur phosphide

     

    (R)

     

    See F027

     

    93-76-5

     

    2,4,5-T

     

     

    U207

     

    95-94-3

     

    1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene

     

     

    U208

     

    630-20-6

     

    1,1,1,2-Terachloroethane

     

     

    U209

     

    79-34-5

     

    1,1,2,2-Tetrachloroethane

     

     

    U210

     

    127-18-4

     

    Tetrachloroethylene

     

     

    See F027

     

    58-90-2

     

    2,3,4,6-Tetrachlorophenol

     

     

    U213

     

    109-99-9

     

    Tetrahydrofuran

     

    (I)

     

    U214

     

    563-68-8

     

    Thallium (I) acetate

     

     

    U215

     

    6533-73-9

     

    Thallium (I) carbonate

     

     

    U216

     

    7791-12-0

     

    Thallium (I) chloride

     

     

    U216

     

    7791-12-0

     

    Thallium chloride Tl1Cl1

     

     

    U217

     

    10102-45-1

     

    Thallium (I) nitrate

     

     

    U218

     

    62-55-5

     

    Thioacetamide

     

     

    U410

     

    59669-26-0

     

    Thiodicarb

     

     

    U153

     

    74-93-1

     

    Thiomethanol

     

    (I,T)

     

     

     

    U244

     

    137-26-8

     

    Thioperoxydicarbonic                            diamide [(H2N)C(S)]252, tetramethyl-

     

     

    U409

     

    23564-05-8

     

    Thiophanate-methyl

     

     

    U219

     

    62-56-6

     

    Thiourea

     

     

    U244

     

    137-26-8

     

    Thiram

     

     

    U220

     

    108-88-3

     

    Toluene

     

     

    U221

     

    25376-45-8

     

    Toluenediamine

     

     

    U223

     

    26471-62-5

     

    Toluene diisocyanate

     

    (R,T)

     

    U328

     

    95-53-4

     

    o-Toluidine

     

     

    U353

     

    106-49-0

     

    p-Toluidine

     

     

    U222

     

    636-21-5

     

    o-Toluidine hydrochloride

     

     

    U389

     

    2303-17-5

     

    Triallate

     

     

    U011

     

    61-82-5

     

    1H-1,2,4-Triazol-3-amine

     

     

    U227

     

    79-00-5

     

    1,1,2-Trichloroethane

     

     

    U228

     

    79-01-6

     

    Trichloroethylene

     

     

    U121

     

    75-69-4

     

    Trichloromonofluoromethane

     

     

    See F027

     

    95-95-4

     

    2,4,5-Trichlorophenol

     

     

    See F027

     

    88-06-2

     

    2,4,6-Trichlorophenol

     

     

    U404

     

    121-44-8

     

    Triethylamine

     

     

    U234

     

    99-35-4

     

    1,3,5-Trinitrobenzene

     

    (R,T)

     

    U182

     

    123-63-7

     

    1,3,5-Trioxane, 2,4,6-trimethyl-

     

     

    U235

     

    126-72-7

     

    Tris(2,3-Dibromopropyl) phosphate

     

     

    U236

     

    72-57-1

     

    Trypan blue

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    U237

    66-75-1

    Uracil mustard

     

     

    U176

     

    759-73-9

     

    Urea, N-ethyl-N-nitroso-

     

     

    U177

     

    684-93-5

     

    Urea, N-methyl-N-nitroso-

     

     

    U043

     

    75-01-4

     

    Vinyl chloride

     

     

    U248

     

    81-81-2

     

    Warfarin,  and  salts,  when  present  at  a concentration of 0.3% or less

     

     

    U239

     

    1330-20-7

     

    Xylene

     

    (I)

     

    U200

     

    50-55-5

     

    Yohimban-16-carboxylic            acid,       11,17- dimethoxy-18-[(3,4,5-trimethoxy- benzoyl)oxy]-, methyl ester

     

     

    U249

     

    1314-84-7

     

    Zinc       phosphide,        when       present        at concentration 10% or less

     

     

    R 299.9226      Table   205c;   discarded   commercial   chemical   products;   off-specification   species; container residues; and spill residues thereof as toxic hazardous wastes.

    Rule 226. Table 205c reads as follows:

     

    Table 205c

    Michigan Hazardous Waste Number

    Chemical Abstract   Services    Number

     

    Substance

    Hazard Code

    001U

    50-76-0

    Actinomycin D

     

    002U

    107-05-1

    Allyl chloride

     

    003U

    117-79-3

    2-aminoanthraquinone

     

    004U

    60-09-3

    Aminoazobenzene

     

    005U

    97-56-3

    0-aminoazotoluene

     

    006U

    92-67-1

    4-aminobiphenyl

     

    007U

    132-32-1

    3-amino-9-ethyl carbazole

     

    157U

    57360-17-5

    3-amino-9-ethyl                        carbazole hydrochloride

     

    008U

    82-28-0

    1-amino-2-methyl anthraquinone

     

    009U

    101-05-3

    Anilazine

     

    158U

    142-04-1

    Aniline hydrochloride

     

    011U

    90-04-0

    o-Anisidine

     

    012U

    134-29-2

    o-Anisidine hydrochloride

     

    013U

    Class-01-0

    Antimony   (when   in   the   form   of particles 100 microns or less)

     

    014U

    1397-94-0

    Antimycin A

     

    147U

    2642-71-9

    Azinphos-ethyl

     

     

     

    148U

    86-50-0

    Azinphos-methyl

     

    159U

    103-33-3

    Azobenzene

     

    015U

    101-27-9

    Barban

     

    016U

    22781-23-3

    Bendiocarb

     

    017U

    17804-35-2

    Benomyl

     

    020U

    1689-84-5

    Bromoxynil

     

    160U

    106-99-0

    1,3-Butadiene

     

    161U

    85-68-7

    Butyl benzl phthalate

     

    022U

    2425-06-1

    Captafol

     

    023U

    133-06-2

    Captan

     

    024U

    63-25-3

    Carbaryl

     

    025U

    1563-66-2

    Carbofuran

     

    027U

    786-19-6

    Carbophenothion

     

    028U

    Class-08-6

    Chloramines

     

    152U

    470-90-6

    Chlorfenuinphos

     

    029U

    2921-88-2

    Chloropyrifos

     

    030U

    Class-05-3

    Chlorinated dibenzofurans (other than those listed in Table 202)

     

    031U

    Class-05-4

    Chlorinated dioxins (other than those listed in Table 202)

     

    032U

    7782-50-5

    Chlorine gas

     

    033U

    107-07-3

    2-Chloroethanol

     

    034U

    6959-48-4

    3-(Chloromethyl)                        pyridine hydrochloride

     

    150U

    106-48-9

    p-chlorophenol

     

    162U

    7005-72-3

    1-chloro-4-phenoxybenzene

     

    036U

    5131-60-2

    4-chloro-m-phenylenediamine

     

    037U

    95-83-0

    4-chloro-o-phenylenediamine

     

    038U

    126-99-8

    Chloroprene

     

    163U

    590-21-6

    1-chloropropene

     

    151U

    96-79-4

    5-chloro-o-toluidene

     

    040U

    1420-04-8

    Clonitralid

     

    041U

    Class-01-6

    Cobalt (when in the form of particles 100 microns or less)

     

    042U

    56-72-4

    Coumasphos

     

    043U

    120-71-8

    p-Cresidine

     

    044U

    7700-17-6

    Crotoxyphos

     

    046U

    66-81-9

    Cycloheximide

     

    164U

    72-55-9

    P,P' DDE

     

    048U

    39156-41-7

    2,4-Diaminoanisole sulfate

     

    049U

    101-80-4

    4,4'-Diaminodiphenyl ether

     

    050U

    95-80-7

    2,4-Diaminotoluene

     

    051U

    333-41-5

    Diazinon

     

    052U

    117-80-6

    Dichlone

     

    054U

    62-73-7

    Dichlorvos

     

     

     

    055U

    141-66-2

    Dichrotophos

     

    056U

    64-67-5

    Diethyl sulfate

     

    165U

    105-55-5

    N,N'-Diethylthiourea

     

    057U

    39300-45-3

    Dinocap

     

    058U

    78-34-2

    Dioxathion

     

    059U

    2104-64-5

    EPN

     

    166U

    106-88-7

    1,2-Epoxybutane

     

    061U

    563-12-2

    Ethion

     

    063U

    115-90-2

    Fensulfothion

     

    064U

    55-38-9

    Fenthion

     

    065U

    33245-39-5

    Fluchloralin

     

    068U

    680-31-9

    Hexamethyl phosphoramide

     

    070U

    123-31-9

    Hydroquinone

     

    071U

    1072-52-2

    N-(2-Hydroxyethyl) ethyleneimine

     

    072U

    14380-61-1

    Hypochlorite

     

    073U

    54-85-3

    Isonicotinic acid hydrazine

     

    167U

    59299-51-3

    Kanechlor C

     

    074U

    463-51-4

    Ketene

     

    075U

    78-97-7

    Lactonitril

     

    076U

    21609-90-5

    Leptophos

     

    077U

    Class-02-0

    Lithium and compounds

     

    078U

    569-64-2

    Malachite green

     

    079U

    121-75-5

    Malathion

     

    082U

    838-88-0

    4,4'-Methylenebis(2-methylaniline)

     

    083U

    101-61-1

    4,4'-Methylenebis(N,N- dimethylaniline)

     

    086U

    90-12-0

    1-Methylnaphthalene

     

    088U

    7786-34-7

    Mevinphos

     

    089U

    315-18-4

    Mexacarbate

     

    090U

    2385-85-5

    Mirex

     

    092U

    6923-22-4

    Monocrotophos

     

    093U

    505-60-2

    Mustard gas

     

    094U

    300-76-5

    Naled

     

    095U

    2243-62-1

    1,5-Napthalenediamine

     

    096U

    Class-02-2

    Nickel (when in the form of particles 100 microns or less)

     

    097U

    61-57-4

    Niridazole

     

    098U

    139-94-6

    Nithiazide

     

    099U

    602-87-9

    5-Nitroacenaphthene

     

    100U

    99-59-2

    Nitro-o-anisidine

     

    101U

    92-93-3

    4-Nitrobiphenyl

     

    102U

    1836-75-5

    Nitrofen

     

    103U

    531-82-8

    N-(4-(5-nitro-2-furanyl)-2-thiazolyl)- acetamide

     

    104U

    51-75-2

    Nitrogen mustard

     

     

     

    106U

    156-10-5

    p-Nitrosodiphenylamine

     

    168U

    4549-40-0

    N-Nitrosomethylvinylamine

     

    108U

    135-20-6

    N-nitroso-N-phenylhydroxylamine, ammonium salt

     

    169U

    29082-74-4

    Octachlorostyrene

     

    110U

    301-12-2

    Oxydemeton-methyl

     

    111U

    1910-42-5

    Paraquat dichloride

     

    112U

    79-21-0

    Peroxyacetic acid

     

    113U

    136-40-3

    Phenazopyridine hydrochloride

     

    115U

    50-06-6

    Phenobarbitol

     

    116U

    57-41-0

    Phenytoin

     

    117U

    630-93-3

    Phenytoin sodium

     

    118U

    4104-14-7

    Phosazetim

     

    119U

    732-11-6

    Phosmet

     

    120U

    13171-21-6

    Phosphamidon

     

    121U

    120-62-7

    Piperonyl sulfoxide

     

    122U

    Class-07-8

    Polybrominated biphenyls (PBB)

     

    124U

    57-57-8

    Propiolactone

     

    127U

    51-52-5

    Propylthiouracil

     

    128U

    83-749-4

    Rotenone

     

    129U

    57-56-7

    Semicarbazide

     

    170U

    563-41-7

    Semicarbazide hydrochloride

     

    153U

    62-74-8

    Sodium fluoroacetate

     

    131U

    100-42-5

    Styrene

     

    132U

    95-06-7

    Sulfallate

     

    134U

    72-54-8

    TDE

     

    135U

    107-49-3

    TEPP

     

    136U

    13071-79-9

    Terbufos

     

    137U

    961-11-5

    Tetrachlorvinphos

     

    138U

    139-65-1

    4,4'-Thiodianiline

     

    139U

    95-53-4

    o-Toluidine

     

    140U

    Class-08-4

    Triaryl phosphate esters

     

    154U

    56-35-9

    Bis(tri-n-butyl tin) oxide

     

    171U

    688-73-3

    Tributyltin (and other salts and esters)

     

    172U

    87-61-6

    1,2,3-Trichlorobenzene

     

    173U

    120-82-1

    1,2,4-Trichlorobenzene

     

    141U

    52-68-6

    Trichlorfon

     

    142U

    1582-09-8

    Trifluralin

     

    143U

    137-17-7

    2,4,5-Trimethylaniline

     

    174U

    51-79-6

    Urethane

     

    175U

    593-60-2

    Vinyl bromide

     

    155U

    75-35-4

    Vinylidene chloride

     

    146U

    137-30-4

    Ziram

     

     

     

    R 299.9227 Deletion of certain hazardous waste numbers after equipment cleaning and replacement. Rule 227.  (1)  Wastes from wood preserving processes at plants that do not resume or initiate the use of chlorophenolic preservatives will not meet the listing description of F032 once the generator has met all of the requirements of subrules (2) to (5) of this rule.  These wastes may, however, continue to meet another  hazardous  waste  listing  description  or  may  exhibit  1  or  more  of  the  hazardous  waste characteristics.

    (2)     Generators shall either clean or replace all process equipment that may have come into contact with chlorophenolic formulations or constituents thereof, including, but not limited to, treatment cylinders, sumps, tanks, piping systems, drip pads, fork lifts, and trams, in a manner that minimizes or eliminates the escape of hazardous waste or constituents, leachate, contaminated drippage, or hazardous waste decomposition products to the environment. In cleaning or replacing the process equipment, the generator shall do 1 of the following:

    (a)       Prepare and follow a process equipment cleaning plan and clean process equipment in accordance with the provisions of subrule (3) of this rule.

    (b)          Prepare and follow a process equipment replacement plan and replace process equipment in accordance with the provisions of subrule (4) of this rule.

    (c)         Document that previous process equipment cleaning or replacement, or both, was performed in accordance with the provisions of subrules (3) or (4), or both, of this rule and occurred after cessation of the use of chlorophenolic preservatives.

    (3)           In  cleaning  the  process  equipment  that  may  have  come  into  contact  with  chlorophenolic formulations, the generator shall do all of the following:

    (a)      Prepare and sign a written process equipment cleaning plan that describes all of the following:

    (i)      The process equipment to be cleaned.

    (ii)      The process equipment cleaning method or methods.

    (iii)      The solvent to be used in cleaning the process equipment.

    (iv)      How the solvent rinses will be tested.

    (v)      How the cleaning residues will be managed and disposed of.

    (b)      Clean the process equipment as follows:

    (i)      Remove all visible residues from the process equipment.

    (ii)          Rinse process equipment with an appropriate solvent until dioxins and dibenzofurans are not detected in the final solvent rinse.

    (c)          Test the rinses in accordance with an appropriate the provisions of SW-846, method 8290 in accordance with 40 C.F.R. §261.35(2)(b)(iii). For the purposes of this rule, "not detected" means at or  below the lower method calibration limit that is specified in method 8290, table 1.

    (d)      Manage all residues from the cleaning process as F032 waste.

    (4)          In  replacing  the  process  equipment  that  may  have  come  into  contact  with  chlorophenolic formulations, the generator shall do all both of the following:

    (a)      Prepare and sign a written process equipment replacement plan that describes all of the following:

    (i)      The process equipment to be replaced.

    (ii)      The process equipment replacement method or methods.

    (iii)      How the process equipment will be managed and disposed of.

    (b)      Manage the discarded process equipment as F032 waste.

    (5)        The generator shall maintain all of the following information that documents the cleaning and replacement activities as part of the operating record:

    (a)      The name and address of the plant.

    (b)      Formulations previously used and the date on which their use ceased in each process at the plant.

    (c)      Formulations currently used in each process at the plant.

    (d)      The equipment cleaning or replacement plan.

     

     

    (e)      The name and address of any persons who conducted the cleaning and replacement.

    (f)      The dates on which the cleaning and replacement were accomplished.

    (g)      The dates of sampling and testing.

    (h)      A description of the sampling handling and preparation techniques, including the techniques that are used for all of the following:

    (i)      Extraction.

    (ii)      Containerization.

    (iii)      Preservation.

    (iv)      Chain-of-custody of the samples.

    (i)      A description of the tests performed, the date the tests were performed, and the results of the tests.

    (j)      The names and model numbers of the instruments used in performing the tests.

    (k)      Quality assurance/quality control documentation.

    (l)      A statement which is signed by the generator or the generator's authorized representative and which contains the following language: "I certify under penalty of law that all process equipment required to be cleaned or replaced under MAC R 299.9227 was cleaned or replaced as represented in the equipment cleaning and/or replacement plan and accompanying documentation. I am aware that there are significant penalties for providing false information, including the possibility of fine or imprisonment."

    (6)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §261.35(2)(b)(iii) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9228 Universal wastes.

    Rule 228. (1) This rule provides an alternate set of standards under which universal wastes may be managed instead of full regulation as hazardous waste under these rules. The requirements of this rule apply to the universal wastes identified in this subrule and to persons managing the universal wastes. Universal wastes that are not managed pursuant to this rule are subject to full regulation as hazardous waste under these rules. Except as provided in subrule (2) of this rule, all of the following universal wastes are exempt from full regulation as hazardous waste under these rules if they are managed pursuant to the requirements of this rule:

    (a)      A battery, including a spent lead-acid battery that is not managed pursuant to R 299.9804.

    (b)      A pesticide, including both of the following:

    (i) A recalled pesticide, including the following:

    (A)     A stock of a suspended and cancelled pesticide that is part of a voluntary or mandatory recall under section 19(b) of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act, including, but not limited to, a stock owned by the registrant responsible for conducting the recall.

    (B)     A stock of a suspended or cancelled pesticide, or of a pesticide that is not in compliance with the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act, that is part of a voluntary recall by the registrant.

    A stock of an unused pesticide product other than a product specified in

    subrule (1)(b)(i) of this rule that is collected and managed as part of a waste pesticide collection program.

    (c)      A thermostat.

    (d)      A mercury switch.

    (e)      A mercury thermometer.

    (f)      A waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent.

    (g)      An electric lamp.

    (h)      A pharmaceutical.

    (i)      Consumer electronics.

    (j)      Antifreeze as defined in R 299.9101.

    (2)    The requirements of this rule do not apply to the following:

    (a)      A spent lead-acid battery that is managed pursuant to R 299.9804.

     

     

    (b)       A battery that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A used battery becomes a waste when it is discarded. An unused battery becomes a waste on the date the universal waste handler decides to discard it.

    (c)       A battery that is not hazardous waste. A battery is a hazardous waste if it exhibits 1 or more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

    (d)        A pesticide identified in subrule (1) of this rule that is managed by farmers in compliance with R 299.9204(3)(b).

    (e)        A pesticide that does not meet the requirements in subrule (1) of this rule. The pesticide shall be managed pursuant to parts 2 to 8 of these rules.

    (f)      A pesticide that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A recalled pesticide becomes a waste on the first date on which the generator of the pesticide agrees to participate in the recall and the person conducting the recall decides to discard the pesticide. An unused pesticide becomes a waste on the date that the generator decides to discard it. The following pesticides are not wastes:

    (i)      A recalled pesticide if the person conducting the recall is in compliance with either of the following provisions:

    (A)     The person has not made a decision to discard the pesticide. Until a decision is made, the pesticide does not meet the definition of a waste pursuant to R 299.9202 and, therefore, is not considered a hazardous waste subject to regulations under these rules. The pesticide remains subject to the requirements of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act.

    (B)      The person has made a decision to use a management option that does not result in the pesticide meeting the definition of a waste pursuant to R 299.9202. The pesticide, including a recalled pesticide that is exported to a foreign destinations for use or reuse, remains subject to the requirements of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act.

    (ii)        An unused pesticide product if the generator of the unused pesticide product has not decided to discard the product. The pesticide product remains subject to the requirements of the federal insecticide, fungicide, and rodenticide act.

    (g)       A pesticide that is not hazardous waste. A pesticide is a hazardous waste if it is listed pursuant to R 299.9213 or R 299.9214 or if it exhibits 1 or more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

    (h)          A thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, or a waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A used thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, or a used waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent becomes a waste on the date it is discarded. An unused thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, and an unused waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to discard it.

    (i)         A thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, and a waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent that is not hazardous waste. A thermostat, mercury switch, mercury thermometer, and a waste device which contains only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent is a hazardous waste if it exhibits 1 or more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

    (j)        An electric lamp that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A used electric lamp becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler permanently removes it from its fixture. An unused electric lamp becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to discard it.

    (k)      An electric lamp that is not a hazardous waste. An electric lamp is a hazardous waste if it exhibits 1 or more of the hazardous characteristics identified in R 299.9212.

    (l)      A pharmaceutical that is not a waste under part 2 of these rules. An unused pharmaceutical becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to discard it.

     

     

    (m)       A pharmaceutical that is not a hazardous waste.  A waste pharmaceutical is a hazardous waste if it is listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.214 or if it exhibits 1 or more hazardous waste characteristics under R 299.9212.

    (n)         Consumer electronics that are not a waste under part 2 of these rules. A consumer electronic becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to discard it.

    (o)      Consumer electronics that are not a hazardous waste. A consumer electronic is a hazardous waste if it is listed under R 299.9213 or R 299.214 or if it exhibits 1 or more hazardous waste characteristics under R 299.9212.

    (p)       Antifreeze that is not a waste under Part 2 of these rules. Used antifreeze becomes a waste when it is discarded. Unused antifreeze becomes a waste on the date that the universal waste handler decides to discard it.

    (q)         Antifreeze that is not a hazardous waste. Antifreeze is a hazardous waste if it is listed in R 299.9213 or R 299.9214, or if it exhibits 1 or more hazardous waste characteristics under R 299.9212.

    (3)            A person  that  manages  household  wastes  that  are  exempt  from  regulation  pursuant  to R 299.9204(2)(a) and are also of the same type as the universal wastes identified in subrule (1) of this rule or conditionally exempt small quantity generator wastes that are exempt from regulation pursuant to R 299.9205 and are also of the same type as the universal wastes identified in subrule (1) of this rule may, at the person's option, manage the wastes pursuant to this rule. A person who commingles household wastes or conditionally exempt small quantity generator wastes with universal waste regulated pursuant to this rule shall manage the commingled waste under the requirements of this rule.

    (4)           A  universal  waste  small  quantity  handler  shall  comply  with  all  of  the  following requirements:

    (a)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart B, except §§273.10 and 273.18(b).

    (b)        If the universal waste small quantity handler is self-transporting universal waste offsite, then the handler becomes the universal waste transporter for the self-transportation activities and shall comply with the requirements of subrule (6) of this rule while transporting the universal wastes.

    (c)         If the universal waste small quantity handler handles electric lamps, then all of the following additional requirements apply:

    (i)      The lamps shall not be crushed or broken.

    (ii)        The lamps shall be managed in a manner that prevents breakage or the release of any universal waste or components of universal waste by containing unbroken lamps in structurally sound packaging that is compatible with the contents of the lamps and will prevent breakage during normal handling conditions. The packaging shall remain closed and lack evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonably foreseeable conditions.

    (iii)       All of the following shall be done with respect to a release of universal waste or components of a universal waste, including lamp fragments or residues, and all lamps that show evidence of breakage, leakage, or damage that could cause the release of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the environment:

    (A)   The release of universal waste or components of a universal waste, including lamp fragments or residues, and all lamps that show evidence of breakage, leakage, or damage that could cause the release of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the environment shall be immediately contained in packaging that is structurally sound and compatible with the contents of the lamps. The packaging shall remain closed once the material has been contained and shall lack evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage or releases of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the environment under reasonably foreseeable conditions.

    (B)     A determination shall be made whether any of the materials resulting from the release or the lamps that show evidence of breakage, leakage, or damage that could cause the release of mercury or other hazardous constituents to the environment are hazardous waste, and if the released materials or lamps

     

     

    are hazardous waste, then the released materials shall be managed pursuant to the applicable requirements of the act and these rules.

    (iv)          The lamps or packaging in which the lamps are contained shall be labelled with the words "universal waste electric lamps," "waste electric lamps," or "used electric lamps."

    (d)       If the universal waste small quantity handler handles mercury switches, mercury thermometers, or waste devices which contain only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent, then 40 C.F.R.

    §273.13(c) shall be applicable to the mercury switches, mercury thermometers, and waste devices which contain only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent.

    (e)        If the universal waste small quantity handler manages pharmaceuticals, then all of the following additional requirements shall apply:

    (i)       The pharmaceuticals shall be managed in a manner that prevents releases of any universal waste or component of a universal waste to the environment. The pharmaceuticals shall be contained in a container that remains closed, except to add or remove universal waste, is structurally sound, is compatible with the pharmaceutical, and lacks evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonably foreseeable circumstances, or if the container does not meet these conditions, is overpacked in a container that does meet these conditions.

    (ii)          If a release of pharmaceuticals or component of pharmaceuticals occurs, the release shall be immediately cleaned up and properly characterized for disposal.

    (iii)      A universal waste handler may disassemble packaging and sort pharmaceuticals.

    (iv)      Incompatible pharmaceuticals shall be segregated. Adequate distance shall be employed to prevent the contact of incompatible materials.

    (f)      If the universal waste small quantity handler manages consumer electronics, then all of the following additional requirements apply:

    (i)      The consumer electronics shall be managed in a manner that prevents breakage or the release of any universal waste or components of universal waste by containing the consumer electronics in packaging that will prevent breakage during normal handling conditions.

    (ii)        Label the outer packaging or container with the words "universal waste consumer electronics" or "universal waste electronics."

    (iii)        Properly contain, classify, and dispose of releases and potential releases of consumer electronics and residues.

    (g)        A universal waste small quantity handler handling consumer electronics may perform any of the following activities and shall still be regulated as a universal waste small quantity handler:

    (i)      Repair the consumer electronics for potential direct reuse.

    (ii)      Remove other universal wastes from the consumer electronics.

    (iii)      Remove individual modular components for direct reuse.

    (h)      If the universal waste small quantity handler manages antifreeze, then all of the following additional requirements shall apply:

    (i)         The antifreeze shall be managed in a manner that prevents releases of any universal waste or component of a universal waste to the environment.

    (ii)      The antifreeze shall be contained in 1 or more of the following manners:

    (A)     A container that remains closed, except to add or remove universal waste, is structurally sound, is compatible with the antifreeze, and that lacks evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonably foreseeable conditions.

    (B)      A container that does not meet the requirements of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, provided that the container is overpacked in a container that does meet the requirements of subparagraph (A) of this paragraph.

    (C)         A tank that meets the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart J, except for 40 C.F.R.

    §§265.197(c), 265.200, and 265.201.

     

     

    (D)       A transport vehicle or vessel that remains closed, except to add or remove universal waste, is structurally sound, is compatible with the antifreeze, and that lacks evidence of leakage, spillage, or damage that could cause leakage under reasonable foreseeable conditions.

    (iii)        If a release of antifreeze or a component of antifreeze occurs, the release shall be immediately cleaned up and properly characterized for disposal.

    (iv)        The containers or tanks used to manage the antifreeze shall be labeled with the words "universal waste antifreeze," "waste antifreeze," or "used antifreeze."

    (5)     A universal waste large quantity handler shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (a)      Maintain the universal waste large quantity handler designation through the end of the calendar year in which a total of 5,000 kilograms or more of universal waste is accumulated.

    (b)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart C, except §§273.30 and 273.38(b).

    (c)     If the universal waste large quantity handler is self-transporting universal waste off site, then the handler becomes the universal waste transporter for the self-transportation activities and shall comply with the requirements of subrule (6) of this rule while transporting the universal wastes.

    (d)           If the universal waste large quantity handler handles electric lamps, all of the additional requirements of subrule (4)(c) of this rule.

    (e)       If the universal waste large quantity handler handles mercury switches, mercury thermometers, or waste devices which contain only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent, then 40 C.F.R.

    §273.33(c) shall be applicable to the mercury switches, mercury thermometers, and waste devices which contain only elemental mercury as the hazardous waste constituent.

    (f)           If the universal waste large quantity handler handles pharmaceuticals, all of the additional requirements of subrule (4)(e) of this rule.

    (g)        If the universal waste large quantity handler handles consumer electronics, all of the additional requirements of subrules (4)(f) and (g) of this rule.

    (h)      If the universal waste large quantity handler handles antifreeze, all of the additional requirements of subrule (4)(h) of this rule.

    (6)     A universal waste transporter shall comply with both of the following requirements:

    (a)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart D, except §§273.50 and 273.53.

    (b)       Store universal wastes at a universal waste transfer facility for 10 days or less. If the transporter stores universal wastes for more than 10 days, then the transporter becomes a universal waste handler and shall comply with the applicable requirements of subrules (4) and (5) of this rule while storing the universal wastes.

    (7)      Except as provided for in subrules (8) and (9) of this rule, an owner or operator of a destination facility shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (a)       The requirements of parts 5 to 8 of these rules and the notification requirements under section 3010 of RCRA.

    (b)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§273.61 and 273.62.

    (c)       The requirements of the act and these rules if the owner or operator generates waste as a result of recycling universal waste.

    (8)       An owner or operator of a destination facility that recycles a particular universal waste without storing the universal waste before recycling shall comply with R 299.9206(1)(c).

    (9)     An owner or operator of a destination facility that stores electric lamps before recycling the electric lamps at the facility shall comply with R 299.9206(5).

    (10)      A person who manages universal waste that is imported from a foreign country into the United States shall comply with the following applicable requirements immediately after the universal waste enters the United States:

    (a)      The requirements of subrule (4) of this rule if a small quantity handler of universal waste.

    (b)      The requirements of subrule (5) of this rule if a large quantity handler of universal waste.

     

     

    (c)      The requirements of subrule (6) of this rule if a transporter of universal waste.

    (d)      The requirements of subrules (7) to (9) of this rule if a universal waste destination facility.

    (e)       The requirements of this rule and R 299.9312 if managing universal waste that is imported from an organization for economic cooperation and development country specified in 40 C.F.R. §262.58(a)(1).

    (11)        The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 273, subparts B to E, except §§273.10, 273.18(b), 273.30, 273.38(b), 273.50, 273.53, and 273.60, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption of  these  provisions,  the  term  "department"  shall  replace  the  term "EPA,"  except  in 40 C.F.R. §§273.20(b) and (c), 273.32(a)(3), 273.40 (b) and (c), and 273.56, the term "director" shall replace the term "regional administrator," the term "R 299.9212" shall replace the term "40 CFR part 261, subpart C," the term "R 299.9306" shall replace the term "40 CFR 262.34," the term "part 3 of these rules" shall replace the term "40 CFR part 262," and the term "parts 2 to 8 of these rules" shall replace the term "40 CFR parts 260 through 272."

     

    R 299.9231 Exclusions and exemptions for CRTs.

    Rule 231. (1) Used, broken CRTs are not considered wastes prior to processing if all of the following conditions are met:

    (a)      The CRTs are destined for recycling.

    (b)       The CRTs are stored in a building with a roof, floor, and walls or are placed in a container that is constructed, filled, and closed to minimize the release of CRT glass, including fine solid materials, to the environment.

    (c)       Each container in which the CRTs are contained shall be labeled or marked clearly with the phrase "Do not mix with other glass materials" and either "Used cathode ray tube(s)-contains leaded glass" or "Leaded glass from televisions or computers."

    (d)        The CRTs are transported in a container that is constructed, filled, and closed to minimize the release of CRT glass, including fine solid materials, to the environment and the container is labeled in accordance with the requirements of subdivision (c) of this subrule.

    (e)      The CRTs are not speculatively accumulated or used in a manner constituting disposal. If the CRTs are used in a manner constituting disposal, they shall be managed in accordance with R 299.9801.

    (f)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §261.39(a)(5) if the CRTs are being exported.

    (2)        Used, broken CRTs undergoing processing are not considered wastes if all of the following conditions are met:

    (a)      The requirements of subdivision (e) of subrule (1) of this rule.

    (b)      All CRT processing shall be performed within a building with a roof, floor, and walls.

    (c)      All CRT processing shall be performed at temperatures that do not volatize the lead from the CRTs.

    (3)      Glass from used CRTs that is destined for recycling at a CRT glass manufacturer or lead smelter after processing is not a waste unless it is speculatively accumulated.

    (4)     Glass from used CRTs that is used in a manner constituting disposal is not excluded from regulation under this rule and shall be subject to the requirements of R 299.9801.

    (5)     Used, intact CRTs exported for recycling are not considered wastes if all of the following conditions are met:

    (a)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §261.39(a)(5).

    (b)      The CRTs are not speculatively accumulated.

    (6)      Persons who export used, intact CRTs for reuse shall comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R.

    §261.41.

    (7)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§261.39(a)(5) and 261.41 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of these adoptions, the term "site identification number" shall replace the term "EPA ID number."

     

     

    R 299.9304 Manifest requirements.

    Rule 304. (1) A hazardous waste generator who transports, or offers for transportation, a hazardous waste for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal, or a treatment, storage, or disposal facility who offers for transport a rejected hazardous waste load, shall do all of the following:

    (a)      Use a manifest which is printed and obtained pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §§262.20 and 262.21.

    (ab) Prepare a manifest in accordance with 40 C.F.R. §262.27 and the instructions in the appendix to 40 C.F.R. part 262 before transporting the waste offsite.

     (b)  Designate on the manifest 1 facility that is licensed to handle the waste described on the manifest.  A generator may also designate on the manifest 1 alternate facility that is licensed to handle his or her waste if an emergency prevents delivery of the waste to the primary designated facility.

    (c)       Use a transporter or be a transporter, if a generator transports his or her own hazardous waste, who is registered and permitted pursuant to Act 138 pursuant to part 4 of these rules.

    (d)  If the transporter is unable to deliver the hazardous waste to the designated facility, the generator shall either designate another facility or instruct the transporter to return the waste. For a total or partial rejected shipment, the generator shall comply with the subrule (7) of this rule.

    (2)      Except as otherwise provided by subrule (3) of this rule, the generator shall use a manifest form which is approved by the director and which contains all of the following information:

    (a) A manifest document number.

    (b) The generator's name, mailing address, telephone number, and site identification number. (c) The name and site identification number of each transporter.

    (d)The name, address, and site identification number of the designated facility and an alternate facility, if any.

    (e) The description of the waste required by regulations of the DOT in 49 C.F.R. §§172.101, 172.202,  and 172.203, which are adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

    (f)The total quantity of each hazardous waste by units of weight or volume, and the type and number of  containers as loaded into or onto the transport vehicle.

    (g) The hazardous waste number describing the waste.

    (h) The following certification: "I hereby declare that the contents of this consignment are fully and accurately described above by proper shipping name and are classified, packed, marked, and labeled, and are in all respects in proper condition for transport by highway according to applicable international and national government regulations."

    (i) Other certification statements required by the director based on requirements under title II of the solid waste disposal act.

    (3) If a generator manifests a shipment of hazardous waste out-of-state, and if the state to which the shipment is manifested requires the use of another manifest, then the generator shall use that manifest.

    (4)     The generator shall do all of the following with respect to the manifest:

    (a)      Sign the manifest ceritifcation by hand.

    (b)  Obtain the handwritten signature of the initial transporter and the date of acceptance on the manifest.

    (c)      Retain 1 copy pursuant to R 299.9307(3).

    (db) Submit 1 legible copy to the director or his or her designee, which shall be postmarked not later than 10 days after the month in which shipment was made.

    (e) Give the remaining copies to the transporter.

     

     

    facility fails to provide a legible and timely copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee, then the generator shall provide the copy to the director or his or her designee upon request.

    (g) For shipments of hazardous waste within the United States solely by water (bulk shipmen`ts only),  send 3 copies of the manifest that are dated and signed pursuant to this rule to the owner or operator of  the designated facility or the last water (bulk shipment) transporter to handle the waste in the United States, if exported by water.

    (h) For rail shipments  of hazardous waste  within the United  States that originate at the site of  generation, the generator shall send not less than 3 copies of the manifest, dated and signed pursuant to this rule, to 1 of the following, as appropriate:

    (i) The next nonrail transporter, if any.

    (ii) The designated facility, if transported solely by rail.

    (iii) The last rail transporter to handle the waste in the United States, if exported by rail.

    (i) For shipments of hazardous waste that is regulated pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 261, subpart C or D, to a designated facility in an authorized state that has not yet obtained authorization from the EPA to regulate that particular waste as hazardous, assure that the owner or operator of the designated facility agrees to sign and return the manifest to the generator, and that any out-of-state transporter signs and  forwards the manifest to the designated facility.

    (35) The requirements of this rule do not apply to hazardous waste that is produced by a generator of more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, in a calendar month if both of the following requirements are met:

    (a)         The waste is reclaimed under a contractual agreement pursuant to which the type of waste and frequency of shipments are specified in the agreement and the vehicle used to transport the waste to the recycling facility and to deliver the regenerated material back to the generator is owned and operated by the reclaimer of the waste.

    (b)       The generator maintains a copy of the reclamation agreement in his or her files for a period of not less than 3 years after termination or expiration of the agreement.

    (46)       A hazardous waste generator who authorizes a transporter to commingle his or her hazardous waste pursuant to R 299.9405(2) or (3) shall add the letters "CS" to the end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on the manifest term "com-same," as specified in R 299.9405(2)(f), or the letters "CD" to the end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on the manifest "com-diff," as specified in R 299.9405(3)(f), to the manifest.

    (7) A generator whose manifested shipment results in a significant manifest discrepancy, as  specified in R 299.9608, and a total or partial rejected shipment, shall do all of the following:

    (a) For a total rejected shipment which is returned to the generator, all of the following:

    (i) Indicate on the original manifest, acknowledgement of receipt, by signing and dating the returned portion of the original manifest.

    (ii)   Return the transporter copy of the original manifest to the transporter. (iii) Submit 1 copy of the original manifest to the department.

    (iv)   Indicate  on the  new manifest, the original manifest  number and the date the subject shipment was rejected.

    (b) For a total rejected shipment which is to be sent to an alternative designated facility, grant permission to the transporter to alter the manifest to designate the new facility.

    (c) For a partial rejected shipment, grant permission to the facility to receive the portion of the original shipment which is not being rejected.

    (d)For a partial rejected shipment which is returned to the generator, all of the following:

    (i) Indicate on the original manifest, acknowledgement of receipt, by signing and dating the returned portion of the transporter copy of the original manifest.

    (ii) Retain a copy of the signed original manifest as a record of the wastes returned.

     

     

    (iii) Return the transporter copy of the original manifest to the transporter.

    (iv) Before shipping the rejected portion of the original shipment to an alternate facility, both of  the following:

    (A)Prepare a new manifest and comply with the requirements of this rule.

    (B)Indicate on the new manifest, the original manifest number and the date of rejection.

    (58) The requirements of this rule and R 299.9305(d) do not apply to the transport of hazardous waste shipments on a public or private right-of-way within or along  the  border of  contiguous  property under the control of the same person, even if such property is contiguous property divided by a public or private right-of-way. Notwithstanding R 299.9401, the generator or transporter shall comply with the requirements for transporters set forth in R 299.9410 in the event of a discharge of hazardous waste on a public or private right-of-way.

    (6) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§ 262.20, 262.21, and 262.27 and the appendix to part 262 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of these adoptions, the words "site identification number" shall replace the words "EPA identification number," the term "R 299.9207" shall replace the term "40 CFR 261.7," and the term "264.72" shall replace "265.72."

     

    R 299.9305 Pre-transport requirements.

    Rule 305. (1) Before transporting hazardous waste or offering hazardous waste for transportation off site, a generator shall do all of the following:

    (a)         Package the waste in accordance with the applicable DOT regulations on packaging under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. parts 173, 178, and 179.

    (b)         Label each package in accordance with the applicable DOT regulations on hazardous materials under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 172.

    (c)      Mark each package of hazardous waste in accordance with the applicable DOT regulations under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 172.

    (d)      Mark each container of 1109 gallons or less used in such transportation with the following:

    (i)         The following words and information displayed in accordance with the provisions of 49 C.F.R.

    §172.304:

    HAZARDOUS WASTE - Federal Law Prohibits Improper Disposal. If found, contact the nearest police or public safety authority or the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency.

    Generator's Name and Address                                                         Generator's Site Identification Number                                                Manifest Document Tracking Number                                                 

    (ii)      The hazardous waste number identifying the waste.

    (e)        Placard or offer the initial transporter the appropriate placards according to DOT regulations for hazardous materials under the provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 172, subpart F.

    (2)     The provisions of 49 C.F.R. parts 172, 173, 178, and 179 are adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

     

    R 299.9306 Accumulation time.

    Rule 306. (1) Except as provided in subrules (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) of this rule, a generator may accumulate hazardous waste on site for 90 days or less without a construction permit or an operating license if he or she complies with all of the following requirements:

    (a)      The waste is managed pursuant to 1 or more of the following methods:

    (i)       The waste is placed in containers, the generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts I, AA, BB, and CC, the generator complies with the containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175, and the generator documents the inspections required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §265.174. The generator shall maintain the inspection records on site for a period of not less than 3 years from the date of the inspection. The period of retention shall be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved

     

     

    enforcement action regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the director. If the generator is unable to comply with 40 C.F.R. §265.176 or the authority having jurisdiction determines that an alternative to the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §265.176 is more protective of human health and the environment, then compliance with 40 C.F.R. §265.176 is considered achieved by meeting the requirements of the fire prevention code and its rules. A copy of an approval letter indicating that the containers are stored in compliance with the fire prevention code and signed by the authority having jurisdiction shall be maintained at the generator's site.

    (ii)       The waste is placed in tanks, the generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts J, AA, BB, and CC, except for §§265.197(c) and 265.200, and the generator complies with R 299.9615, except for R 299.9615(1). For the purposes of this rule, the references in R 299.9615 to 40 C.F.R. part 264 shall be replaced by references to 40 C.F.R. part 265.

    (iii)       The waste is placed on drip pads, the generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart W, and the generator maintains the following records at the facility:

    (A)     A description of the procedures that shall be followed to ensure that all wastes are removed from the drip pad and associated collection system at least once every 90 days.

    (B)      Documentation of each waste removal, including the quantity of waste that is removed from the drip pad and the sump or collection system and the date and time of removal.

    (b)       The date upon which each period of accumulation begins and the hazardous waste number of the waste are clearly marked and visible for inspection on each container.

    (c)        While being accumulated on site, each container and tank is labeled with the words "Hazardous Waste."

    (d)          The generator complies with the requirements for owners or operators in 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts C and D, and 40 C.F.R. §265.16 and 40 C.F.R. §268.7(a)(5). If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the generator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone number 800-292-4706. The notification shall include all of the following information:

    (i)      The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

    (ii)      The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the generator.

    (iii)      The date, time, and type of incident.

    (iv)      The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

    (v)      The extent of injuries, if any.

    (vi)        The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the incident, if any.

    (vii)       An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

    (viii)       The immediate response action taken.

    (e)      The area where waste is accumulated is protected, as appropriate for the type of waste being stored, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

    (f)      Hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in violation of part 55 of the act.

    (g)      The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§265.111 and 265.114.

    A generator may, without a construction permit or an operating license issued pursuant to part 111 of the act and without complying with subrule (1) of this rule, accumulate as much as 55 gallons of hazardous waste or 1 quart of an acute hazardous waste that is identified in table 203a, 204a, 204b, or 205a, or a severely toxic hazardous waste that is identified in table 202 in containers at or near any point of generation where wastes initially accumulate and which is under the control of the operator of the process that generates the waste if he or she complies with 40 C.F.R. §§265.171, 265.172, and 265.173

     

     

    and marks his or her containers with the hazardous waste number of the waste and the words "Hazardous Waste." A generator may substitute the chemical name for the hazardous waste number of the waste on his or her containers at or near the point of generation to comply with this subrule. A generator who accumulates hazardous waste, an acute hazardous waste that is listed in table 203a, 204a, 204b, or 205a, or a severely toxic hazardous waste that is listed in table 202 in excess of the amounts listed in this subrule at or near any point of generation shall, with respect to that amount of excess waste, comply, within 3 days, with the requirements of this subrule or other applicable provisions of this part. During the 3-day period, the generator shall continue to comply with the requirements of this rule. The generator shall mark the container that holds the excess accumulation of hazardous waste with the date that the excess amount began accumulating and the hazardous waste number of the waste.

    (3)      A generator who accumulates hazardous waste for more than 90 days is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to the requirements of parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules, unless the generator has been granted an extension of the time period or except as provided in subrules (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) of this rule. An extension of up to 30 days may be granted by the director, or his or her designee, if hazardous wastes must remain on site for more than 90 days due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances.

    (4)      A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who does not generate or accumulate acute hazardous waste or severely toxic hazardous waste that exceeds the volumes specified in R 299.9205(1)(b) or (c) may accumulate hazardous waste on site for 180 days or less without a construction permit or an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant to R 299.9502 if all of the following provisions are complied with:

    (a)      The quantity of waste accumulated on site does not exceed 6,000 kilograms.

    (b)      The generator does either of the following:

    Places the waste in containers and complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart I, except for §§265.176 and 265.178, and, if the quantity of waste accumulated on site exceeds 1,000 kilograms, complies with the containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175.

    (ii) Places the waste in tanks and complies with 40 C.F.R. §265.201 and, if the quantity of waste accumulated on  site  exceeds  1,000 kilograms,  complies  with  the  containment  requirements  of 40 C.F.R. §§265.191, 265.192, 265.193, and 265.196.

    Places the waste on a drip pad and complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart W, and maintains the following records on site:

    A description of the procedures that will be followed to ensure that all of the wastes are removed from the drip pad and associated collection system at least once every 90 days.

    (B) Documentation of each waste removal, including the quantity of waste that is removed from the drip pad and the sump or collection system and the date and time of removal.

    (c)          The generator ensures that the date upon which each period of accumulation begins and the hazardous waste number of the waste are clearly marked and visible for inspection on each container.

    (d)       The generator on each container ensures that while being accumulated on site, each container and tank is marked clearly with the words "Hazardous Waste."

    (e)      The generator complies with 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart C, and 40 C.F.R. §268.7(a)(5).

    (f)       The generator ensures that, at all times, there is at least one employee either on the premises or on call who is responsible for coordinating all emergency response measures specified in subdivision (i) of this subrule. The employee is the emergency coordinator and, if on call, shall be available to respond to an emergency by reaching the facility within a short period of time.

    (g)         The generator posts, next to the telephone, the name and telephone number of the emergency coordinator; the location of fire extinguishers and spill control material and, if present, fire alarm; and the telephone number of the fire department, unless the facility has a direct alarm.

     

     

    (h)        The generator ensures that all employees are thoroughly familiar with proper waste handling and emergency procedures relevant to their responsibilities during normal facility operations and emergencies.

    (i)         The emergency coordinator or his or her designee responds to any emergencies that arise. An emergency coordinator shall respond as follows:

    (i)      If there is a fire, call the fire department or attempt to extinguish the fire using a fire extinguisher.

    (ii)        If there is a spill, contain the flow of hazardous waste to the extent possible and, as soon as is practicable, clean up the hazardous waste and any contaminated materials or soils.

    (iii)      If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or the environment or if the generator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone number 800-292-4706. For releases that could threaten human health outside the individual site of generation and spills that have reached surface waters, the generator shall also immediately notify the national response center at its 24-hour, toll-free number - 800-424-8802. The notifications shall include all of the following information:

    (A)    The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

    (B)    The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the generator.

    (C)    The date, time, and type of incident.

    (D)    The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

    (E)    The extent of injuries, if any.

    (F)     The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the incident, if any.

    (G)    An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

    (H)    The immediate response action taken.

    (j)       The generator ensures that the area where the waste is accumulated is protected from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

    (k)         The generator ensures that hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in violation of part 55 of the act.

    (5)      A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who must transport his or her waste, or offer his or her waste for transportation, over a distance of 200 miles or more for off-site treatment, storage, or disposal may accumulate hazardous waste on site for 270 days or less without a construction permit or an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant to R 299.9502, if he or she complies with subrule

    (4) of this rule.

    (6)      A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who accumulates hazardous waste in quantities of more than 6,000 kilograms or accumulates hazardous waste for more than 180 days, or for more than 270 days if he or she must transport the waste, or offer the waste for transportation, over a distance of 200 miles or more, is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to the requirements of parts 5 and 6 of these rules, unless he or she has been granted an extension to the 180-day or, if applicable, 270-day period. The director or his or her designee may grant an extension if hazardous waste must remain on site for more than 180 days or 270 days, if applicable, due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances. The director or his or her designee may grant an extension of up to 30 days on a case-by-case basis.

    (7)         A generator who generates 1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who also generates wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations that meet the listing description for F006 waste, may accumulate F006 on site for more than 90 days, but not more than 180

     

     

    days, without a construction permit or an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant to R 299.9502, if he or she complies with all of the following requirements:

    (a)          The generator has implemented pollution prevention practices that reduce the amount of any hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants entering the F006 waste or are otherwise released to the environment before its recycling.

    (b)      The F006 waste is legitimately recycled through metals recovery.

    (c)      The quantity of F006 waste on site does not exceed 20,000 kilograms at any one time.

    (d)      The F006 waste is managed pursuant to either of the following requirements:

    (i)      The F006 waste is placed in containers and the generator complies with the applicable requirements of  40  C.F.R.  part  265,  subparts  I,  AA,  BB,  and  CC,  the  containment  requirements  of  40 C.F.R.

    §264.175, and the generator documents the inspections required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §265.174. The generator shall maintain the inspection records on site for a period of not less than 3 years from the date of the inspection. The period of retention shall be extended automatically during the course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the director.

    (ii)       The F006 waste is placed in tanks and the generator complies with the applicable requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts J, AA, BB, and CC, except for 40 C.F.R. §§265.197(c) and 265.200, and the generator complies with R 299.9615, except for R 299.9615(1). For the purposes of this rule, the references in R 299.9615 to "40 C.F.R. part 264" shall be replaced by references to "40 C.F.R. part 265."

    (e)        The date upon which each period of accumulation begins and the hazardous waste number of the waste are clearly marked and visible for inspection on each container.

    (f)        While being accumulated on site, each container and tank is labeled or marked clearly with the words "hazardous waste."

    (g)          The generator complies with the requirements for owners or operators in 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts C and D, with 40 C.F.R. §265.16, and with 40 C.F.R. §268.7(a)(5). If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the generator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the generator shall immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone number 800-292-4706. The notification shall include all of the following information:

    (i)      The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

    (ii)      The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the generator.

    (iii)      The date, time, and type of incident.

    (iv)      The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

    (v)      The extent of injuries, if any.

    (vi)        The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered materials that resulted from the incident, if any.

    (vii)       An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

    (viii)       The immediate response action taken.

    (h)       The area where waste is accumulated is protected, as appropriate for the type of waste being stored, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

    (i)      Hazardous waste accumulation is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in violation of part 55 of the act.

    (j)      The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§265.111 and 265.114.

    (8)      A generator who generates 1,000 kilograms or more of hazardous waste in a calendar month and who also generates wastewater treatment sludges from electroplating operations that meet the listing description for F006 waste, and who must transport this waste or offer this waste for transportation over a distance of 200 miles or more for off-site metals recovery may accumulate F006 on site for more than

     

     

    90 days, but not more than 270 days, without a construction permit or an operating license or without being an existing facility pursuant to R 299.9502, if he or she complies with subrule (7) of this rule.

    (9)     A generator who accumulates F006 waste pursuant to subrule (7) of this rule and who accumulates F006 for more than 180 days, or who accumulates more than 20,000 kilograms of F006 on site, is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules unless the generator has been granted an extension to the 180-day period or an exception to the 20,000-kilogram accumulation limit. Such an extension or exception may be granted by the director, or his or her designee, if F006 waste must remain on site for longer than 180 days or if more than 20,000 kilograms of F006 waste must remain on site due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances. An extension of up to 30 days or an exception to the accumulation limit may be granted at the discretion of the director, or the director's designee, on a case-by-case basis.

    (10)     A generator who accumulates F006 waste pursuant to subrule (8) of this rule and who accumulates F006 on site for more than 270 days, or who accumulates more than 20,000 kilograms of F006 on site, is an operator of a storage facility and is subject to parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules unless the generator has been granted an extension to the 270-day period or an exception to the 20,000-kilogram accumulation limit. Such an extension or exception may be granted by the director, or his or her designee, if F006 waste must remain on site for longer than 270 days or if more than 20,000 kilograms of F006 waste must remain on site due to unforeseen, temporary, and uncontrollable circumstances. An extension of up to 30 days or an exception to the accumulation limit may be granted at the discretion of the director, or his or her designee, on a case-by-case basis.

    (11)          A generator who sends a shipment of hazardous waste to a designated facility with the understanding that the designated facility can accept and manage the waste and later receives that same shipment back as a rejected load or residue in accordance with the manifest discrepancy provisions of R 299.9608 may accumulate the returned waste onsite in accordance with subrules (1) and (3) or (4), (5), and (6) of this rule, depending on the amount of hazardous waste onsite in that calendar month. Upon receipt  of  the  returned  shipment,  the  generator  shall  comply  with  the  provisions  of  40 C.F.R.

    §262.34(m)(1) and (2).

    (112) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§262.34(m)(1) and (2), 264.175, and 265.16, and part 265, subparts C,  D,  I,  and J,  are  adopted  by  reference  in  R 299.11003.  For  purposes  of  the  adoption  of 40 C.F.R. §265.56(j), the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator."

     

    R 299.9307 Generator recordkeeping.

    Rule 307. (1) A generator shall keep records of any test results, waste analyses, or other determinations made pursuant to R 299.9302 for not less than 3 years from the date that the waste was last sent to on-site or off-site treatment, storage, or disposal.

    (2)     A generator who is requested by the director to submit evaluation results shall provide the required information within 30 days after receipt of the request. The records shall include all of the following information:

    (a)      The type of waste and the source or process from which it was produced.

    (b)      The chemical composition of the waste and the anticipated fluctuations in its chemical composition.

    (c)      If tests were conducted in the evaluation, all of the following information shall be included:

    (i)        The sampling procedure and the reasons for determining that the sample is representative of the waste.

    (ii)      The results of all tests conducted.

    (iii)    The accuracy and precision of any tests conducted.

    (3)      A generator shall keep a copy of each manifest signed pursuant to R 299.9304(24) for 3 years or until he or she receives a signed copy from the designated facility which received the waste.   This

     

     

    signed copy shall be retained as a record for not less than 3 years from the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter.

    (4)     A generator shall keep a copy of each biennial report, exception report, or other report required by the director, or his or her designee, for a period of not less than 3 years from the due date of the report.

    (5)     A generator shall keep the documentation required pursuant to R 299.9503(1)(i)(ix) for not less than 3 years from the date that the waste was treated.

    (6)     The periods of retention referred to in this rule are extended automatically during the course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the regulated activity or as requested by the director.

    (7)       A generator who generates more than 100 kilograms but less than 1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month is exempt from the recordkeeping requirements of subrule (4) of this rule.

     

    R 299.9308 Generator reporting.

    Rule 308. (1) A generator of more than 1,000 kilograms who ships any hazardous waste off-site to a treatment, storage, or disposal facility within the United States shall provide prepare and submit a single copy of a biennial report to the department director or the director's designee by March 1 of each even numbered year all of the data necessary for the department to prepare documentation, such as Michigan's hazardous waste report, which the department shall submit to the EPA when required. The data biennial report shall be submitted on a form and in a format specified by the director or the director's designee. The data shall be provided as part of the manifests required in Parts 3 and 6 of the rules, information required in subule (2) of this rule, or other reporting mechanism requested by the director or his or her designee. The data report shall cover generator activities during the previous calendar year and shall include all of the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §262.41(a)(1) to (8).

    (2)       Any generator of more than 1,000 kilograms who treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste on-site shall submit data a biennial report covering those wastes in accordance with parts 5 and 6 of these rules. Reporting for exports of hazardous waste is not required on the biennial report form. A separate annual report requirement is set forth in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.56.

    (3)      A generator of more than 1,000 kilograms of hazardous waste in a calendar month who does not receive a copy of the manifest with the handwritten signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility within 35 days of the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter shall do both of the following:

    (a)       Contact the transporter or the owner or operator of the designated facility to determine the status of the hazardous waste.

    (b)       If the generator has not received a copy of the manifest with the handwritten signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility within 45 days of the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter, then the generator shall submit an exception report to the director, or his or her designee, and the EPA regional administrator for the region in which the generator is located. The exception report shall include both of the following:

    (i)      A legible copy of the manifest for which the generator does not have confirmation of delivery.

    (ii)       A cover letter signed by the generator, or the generator's authorized representative, explaining the efforts taken to locate the hazardous waste and the results of those efforts.

    (4)     A generator shall furnish periodic reports of hazardous waste generated, stored, transferred, treated, disposed of, or transported for treatment, storage, or disposal required by the director or his or her designee.

    (5)      A generator of more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous waste in a calendar month who does not receive a copy of the manifest with the handwritten signature of the owner or operator of the designated facility within 60 days of the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter shall submit a legible copy of the manifest, with some indication that the generator has not

     

     

    received confirmation of delivery, to the director or his or her designee and the regional administrator for the region in which the generator is located.

    (6)      A generator of more than 100 kilograms, but less than 1,000 kilograms, of hazardous waste in a calendar month is subject to the following requirements:

    (a)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.40(a), (c), and (d).

    (b)      Additional reporting requirements pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §262.43.

     

    R 299.9309 Exports of hazardous waste.

    Rule 309. (1) Any person who exports hazardous waste to a foreign country shall comply with 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart E, except 40 C.F.R. §§262.54 and 262.55.

    (2)     A primary exporter shall comply with the manifest requirements of R 299.9304, except as follows:

    (a)      In place of the name, site address, and site identification number of the designated permitted facility, the primary exporter shall enter the name and site address of the consignee.

    (b)       In place of the name, site address, and site identification number of the permitted alternate facility, the primary exporter may enter the name and site address of any alternative consignee.

    (c)            In the international shipments block portion of the manifest reserved for special handling instructions and additional information, the primary exporter shall check the export box and enter identify the point of exit, both city and state, departure from the United States.

    (d)      The following statement shall be added to the end of the first sentence of the certification set forth on the manifest form: "and conforms to the terms of the attached EPA acknowledgement of consent."

    (e)        In place of the requirements of R 299.9304(3), the primary exporter shall obtain a manifest form approved by the director.

    (f)          The primary exporter shall require the consignee to confirm, in writing, the delivery of the hazardous waste to that facility and to describe any significant discrepancies, as defined in R 299.9608, between the manifest and the shipment. A copy of the manifest signed by such facility may be used to confirm delivery of the hazardous waste.

    (gf) In place of the requirements of R 299.9304(1)(ed), where a shipment cannot be delivered for any reason to the designated or alternate consignee, the primary exporter shall do either of the following:

    (i)       Renotify EPA of a change in the conditions of the original notification to allow shipment to a new consignee pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §262.53(c) and obtain an EPA acknowledgement of consent before delivery.

    (ii)       Instruct the transporter to return the waste to the primary exporter in the United States or designate another facility within the United States and instruct the transporter to revise the manifest pursuant to the primary exporter's instructions.

    (hg) The primary exporter shall attach a copy of the EPA acknowledgement of consent to the shipment to the manifest which shall accompany the hazardous waste shipment. For exports by rail or bulk water shipment, the primary exporter shall provide the transporter with an EPA acknowledgement of consent which shall accompany the hazardous waste, but which need not be attached to the manifest, except that for exports by bulk water shipment, the primary exporter shall attach the copy of the EPA acknowledgement of consent to the shipping paper.

    (3)     In place of the requirements of R 299.9308(3), a primary exporter shall file an exception report with the administrator and director if any of the following occurs:

    (a)       The exporter has not received a copy of the manifest signed by the transporter stating the date and place of departure from the United States within 45 days from the date the manifest was accepted by the initial transporter.

     

     

    (b)      Within 90 days from the date the waste was accepted by the initial transporter, the primary exporter has not received written confirmation from the consignee that the hazardous waste was received.

    (c)      The waste is returned to the United States.

    (4)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 262, subpart E, except 40 C.F.R. §§262.54 and 262.55, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9310 Hazardous waste imports.

    Rule 310. (1) Any person who imports hazardous waste from a foreign country into the United States shall comply with this rule.

    (2)     When importing hazardous waste, a person shall meet all of the requirements of R 299.9304 for the manifest, except as follows:

    (a)       In place of the generator's name, address, and site identification number, the name and address of the foreign generator and the United States importer's name, address, and site identification number shall be used.

    (b)      In place of the generator's signature on the certification statement, the United States importer, or his or her agent, shall sign and date the certification and obtain the signature of the initial transporter.

    (c)      In the international shipments block, the United States importer shall check the import box and enter the point of entry, both city and state, into the United States.

    (3)     A person who imports hazardous waste from a foreign country to an ultimate treatment, storage, or  disposal facility in Michigan shall use a manifest form approved by the director. The United States importer shall provide the transporter with an additional copy of the manifest to be submitted by the receiving facility to the EPA.

     

    R 299.9401 Scope.

    Rule 401. (1) This part applies to transporters of hazardous waste if the transportation requires a manifest under part 3 of these rules, and transporters operating under R 299.9304(35).

    (2)       This part does not apply to on-site transportation of hazardous waste either by generators or by owners or operators of licensed hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities.

    (3)     A transporter of hazardous waste shall also comply with part 3 of these rules relating to hazardous wastes, except for R 299.9307(4) and R 299.9308(1) and (2), and the accumulation time limits specified in R 299.9404(1)(b), if either of the following provisions apply to the transporter:

    (a)      The transporter is the United States importer of hazardous waste into the state from abroad.

    (b)         The transporter commingles, by placing the waste in the same container, compatible hazardous waste of different DOT shipping descriptions where the DOT hazard class or the DOT packing group differs in a manner that alters the components of the waste description on the generator's original manifest.

    (4)      A person who commingles hazardous waste from lab packs shall comply with parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules if the wastes from the lab packs are mixed.

    (5)     A transporter of federal hazardous waste subject to the manifesting requirements of part 3 of these rules or subject to the universal waste provisions of R 299.9228 that is being imported from or exported to any of the countries listed in 40 C.F.R. §262.58(a)(1) for the purpose of recovery shall comply with R 299.9312.

    (6)       This part does not apply to transportation during an explosives or munitions emergency response which is conducted pursuant to R 299.9503(2).

     

    R 299.9404 Transfer facility requirements.

    Rule 404. (1) A transporter at a transfer facility shall comply with all of the following requirements:

     

     

    (a)        Manage vehicles and hazardous wastes so that hazardous waste and hazardous waste constituents cannot escape into the soil, directly or indirectly into surface or groundwaters, or uncontrolled into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are controlled by closing, covering, or otherwise sealing containers, as required by 49 C.F.R. §173.24(b), at all times unless the container is being filled or emptied of waste or is being cleaned.

    (b)       Store hazardous wastes, subject to manifesting requirements, in containers meeting the applicable requirements of 49 C.F.R. parts 107 and 172 to 180 for a period of 10 days or less. Storage for a period of more than 10 days requires compliance with the treatment, storage, and disposal facility requirements of parts 5, 6, and 7 of these rules.

    (c)       Hazardous wastes shall not be routed to the same transfer facility more than once during the course of transportation, unless either of the following provisions applies:

    (i)    The load has been rejected by the treatment, storage, and disposal facility and the load is either being returned to the generator or is being sent to an alternate treatment, storage, and disposal facility.

    (ii)       A transporter was temporarily unable to deliver the waste for reasons unrelated to the suitability of the treatment, storage, and disposal facility to manage the waste, such as treatment, storage, and disposal facility maintenance or overbooking or delivery of the load after normal business hours, and rerouting was necessary to ensure subsequent delivery at the designated facility.

    (2)     A transporter who off-loads hazardous wastes during the course of transportation for the purpose of storage off of the vehicle or conveyance of waste in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9503(1)(k) shall comply with all of the following requirements.

    (a)      The requirements of R 299.9404(1).

    (b)       For new activity, prior to the activity beginning, provide notification to the department. Within 30 days of changes to information included in the notification a subsequent notification is required. The notification shall include all of the following information:

    (i)      The transporter name and EPA site identification number.

    (ii)      The transporter mailing address.

    (iii)      The transporter telephone number.

    (iv)      The owner of the transfer facility.

    (v)      The location and telephone number of all of the transfer facilities.

    (vi)      A description of the transfer activity performed at each transfer facility location.

    (c)      Obtain financial capability as specified in R 299.9711 for transfer facilities.

    (d)      The requirements of 49 C.F.R. parts 130 and 172 to 180, and 40 C.F.R. §263.31 concerning the use and management of containers.

    (e)           Secondary containment shall be sufficiently impervious to prevent any hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituent released into the containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil, groundwater, or surface water.

    (f) The requirements of 49 C.F.R. §§172.602, 172.702, 172.704, and 177.848 and 29 C.F.R. part 1910, subpart L, and §§1910.120(q) and 1910.132 to 1910.138 concerning preparedness and prevention, contingency planning and emergency procedures, and training.

    (g) Maintain an inventory log that tracks manifested hazardous waste which is managed at the transfer facility by date of receipt, date of shipment off site, and manifest number. The inventory log, or similar documentation, shall also include the date of the weekly inspection of the areas where containers are stored and the results of the inspection, including, at a minimum, any evidence of container failure, the condition of secondary containment, and remediation correcting any problems noted.

    Except as required in subdivision (a) of this subrule, the requirements of this subrule do not apply when, during the course of transportation, there is a continuous physical link between vehicles or vehicles and pipelines   for   waste   being   off-loaded   or,   in   the   case   of   bulk-packagings   authorized   by

     

     

    49 C.F.R. §173.240, the break in the link between the transport vehicles is no longer than is necessary to accomplish the immediate transfer of the bulk packagings from one vehicle to another vehicle.

    (3)     Transfer facility operations shall not occur at treatment, storage, and disposal facilities designated to receive the manifested hazardous wastes.

    (4)     The provisions of 49 C.F.R. parts 107, 130, and 171 to 180, and 29 C.F.R. part 1910, subpart L, and

    §§1910.120(q) and ''1910.132 to 1910.138 are adopted by reference in R 299.11004.

     

    R 299.9405 Consolidation and commingling of hazardous waste.

    Rule 405. (1) A transporter consolidating containers of hazardous waste shall ensure that the original manifest for each hazardous waste container in the consolidated shipment accompanies the shipment.

    (2)     A transporter commingling hazardous wastes of the same DOT shipping description where the DOT hazard class and DOT packing group remain the same shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (a)      The provisions of 49 C.F.R. part 173, as applicable.

    (b)       Conduct commingling, unless performed at the generator location at the time when the load is first received by the transporter, in a secondarily contained area that is sufficiently impervious to prevent any hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituent released into the containment system from migrating out of the system to the soil, groundwater, or surface water.

    (c)      Ensure that commingled wastes are destined for a single disposal facility.

    (d)      Ensure that incompatible wastes are not commingled.

    (e)      Ensure that commingled wastes do not undergo chemical or thermal change or treatment, and ensure that the resultant waste retains both the physical and chemical characteristics similar to the individual wastes before they were commingled.

    (f)        Ensure that the generator authorizes the commingling in accordance with R 299.9304(46) and enters the term "CScom-same" to the end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on in the special handling instructions and additional information section of the manifest, denoting the commingling activity.

    (g)       For bulk rail or bulk water shipments, ensure that where the commingling of wastes results in the original shipment being transported to the designated facility by more than 1 vehicle the extra copies of the manifest as provided by the generator in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9304(24)(f) and

    (g)   accompany each of the vehicles and that the transporter prepares a DOT-approved shipping paper and attaches the shipping paper to the top of the manifest or manifests. The shipping paper shall reflect the differences from the original shipment in terms of quantity, count, and DOT-approved packaging.

    (h)      Ensure that where the commingling of wastes results in changes to the quantity, count, or DOT- approved packaging on the generator manifest or manifests, the transporter prepares a DOT-approved shipping paper and attaches the shipping paper to the top of the manifest or manifests. The shipping paper shall reflect the differences from the original shipment in terms of quantity, count, and DOT-approved packaging.

    (i)          Ensure that, where a commingled load is rejected by the designated facility, all generators contributing to the commingled load are contacted to designate an alternate facility and that the rejected commingled wastes are not returned to any single generator.

    (3)       A transporter commingling compatible hazardous wastes of different DOT shipping descriptions where the DOT hazard class or DOT packing group differs in a manner that alters the components of the waste description on the generator's original manifest shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (a)      Comply with the requirements of subrule (2)(a) to (e) of this rule.

     

     

    (b)         For new activity, prior to the activity beginning, provide notification to the department. Within 30 days of changes in information included in the original notification a subsequent notification is required. The notification shall include all of the following information:

    (i)      The transporter name and EPA site identification number.

    (ii)      The transporter mailing address.

    (iii)      The transporter telephone number.

    (iv)      The owner of the facility.

    (v)          If other than the generator site, the location of the facility and the telephone number where commingling activity is performed.

    (vi)      The description of the commingling activity performed at each facility location.

    (c)      Prepare a new manifest as a generator in accordance with part 3 of these rules.

    (d)         On the new manifest, describe the commingled load in the special handling instructions and additional information section of the manifest by entering adding the term "CDcom-dif" to the end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on the manifest and noting the original generator manifest number or numbers.

    (e)       Ensure that the transporter-initiated manifest and the generator manifests accompany the shipment to the designated facility. The transporter-initiated manifest shall satisfy DOT shipping paper requirements and be segregated from the generator manifests. All generator and transporter manifests shall be signed by an authorized representative of the designated facility upon receipt of the waste.

    (f)         Ensure that the generator enters adds the term "CDcom-dif" to the end of the hazardous waste number or numbers used on the manifest and the new manifest document number from the manifest, prepared as required in subrule subdivision (c) of this subrule, in the special handling instructions and additional information section of the manifests.

    (g)            Comply with  part  3  of  these  rules  relating  to  the  wastes,  except  for  R 299.9307(4)  and R 299.9308(1) and (2) and the accumulation time limits specified in R 299.9404(1)(b).

    (h)        Ensure that, where a commingled load is rejected by the designated facility, all other generators contributing to the load are contacted to jointly, with the transporter, designate an alternate facility and that the rejected commingled wastes are not returned to any single generator. The transporter, under this part, shares generator responsibility.

     

    R 299.9409 Transporter manifest and recordkeeping requirements.

    Rule 409. (1) Hazardous waste transporters shall only transporting hazardous waste manifested to a  facility in Michigan, or generated in Michigan, shall transport using a manifest form approved by the department unless the hazardous waste is generated in Michigan, but manifested to a facility in another state and that state requires use of its own manifest. Hazardous waste transporters  transporting hazardous waste neither generated in the state, nor manifested to a facility in the state, shall transport using a manifest form equivalent to EPA form 8700-22. A Hazardous waste transporters who removes a hazardous waste from the site of a generator or who transports hazardous wastes into the state shall comply with 40 C.F.R. part 263, subpart B, regarding the manifest system, compliance with  the manifest, and recordkeeping. The transporter shall ensure that all portions of the manifest have been completed before signing the manifest and accepting the hazardous waste.

    (2)     If the hazardous waste cannot be delivered pursuant to the manifest and 40 C.F.R. §263.21(a), and if the transporter revises the manifest pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §263.21(b)(1), the transporter shall legibly note on the manifest the name and phone number of the person representing the generator from whom instructions have been obtained.

    (3)     A transporter whose manifested shipment results in a significant manifest discrepancy, as specified in R 299.9608, and a total or partial rejected shipment shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §263.21(b)(2) do all  of the following:

     

     

    (a) Indicate on the original manifest acknowledgement of receipt by signing and dating the manifest before leaving the designated facility.

    (b) For a total rejected shipment which is returned to the generator, a transporter shall do both of the  following:

    (i) Obtain acknowledgement of receipt by having the generator sign and date the original manifest. (ii) Retain the transporter copy of the original manifest.

    (c) For a total rejected shipment to be sent to an  alternate  facility,  obtain  permission  from  the generator to alter the original manifest to designate the alternate facility and document as specified in subrule (2) of this rule.

    (d)For a partial rejected shipment which is returned to the generator, a transporter shall do both of the  following:

    (i) Obtain acknowledgement of receipt by having the generator sign and date the original manifest. (ii) Retain the transporter copy of the original manifest.

    (e)       Before accepting for transportation the rejected portion of the original shipment, the transporter shall confirm that the generator has prepared a new manifest pursuant to part 3 of these rules.

    (4)     A transporter shall retain all records, logs, or documents required pursuant to this part for a period of 3 years. The retention period shall be extended during the course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the regulated activity or as otherwise required by the department.

    (5)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 263, subpart B, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9503 Construction permits and operating licenses; exemptions.

    Rule 503. (1) The following persons do not require a construction permit or operating license pursuant to the provisions of part 111 of the act:

    (a)          Persons who own or operate a facility that treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste in compliance with the provisions of parts 31, 55, and 115 of the act, if the only hazardous wastes the facility treats, stores, or disposes of are conditionally exempt small quantities that are exempted from regulation pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9205.

    (b)         Generators who accumulate hazardous waste on site for less than the time periods provided in R 299.9306.

    (c)       Farmers who dispose of waste pesticides from their own use in compliance with the provisions of R 299.9204(3)(b).

    (d)      Owners or operators of totally enclosed treatment facilities.

    (e)      Owners or operators of elementary neutralization units.

    (f)        Owners or operators of wastewater treatment units, if the following conditions, as applicable, are complied with:

    (i)      The units are subject to regulation pursuant to the provisions of section 402 or 307(b) of the federal clean water act.

    (ii)        The units are located on the site of a generator and do not treat hazardous waste from any other generator unless the waste is shipped entirely by pipeline or the off-site generator has the same owner as the facility at which the unit is located.

    (iii)        If an owner or operator is diluting D001 waste, other than D001 high TOC subcategory waste as defined in 40 C.F.R. §268.40, or D003 waste, to remove the hazardous characteristic before land disposal, the owner or operator complies with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§264.17(b) and 265.17(b), as applicable.

    (g)       Transporters storing manifested shipments of hazardous waste in containers at a transfer facility for a period of 10 days or less, if the transfer facility requirements of R 299.9404 are met.

    (h)       Persons adding absorbent material to hazardous waste in a container, and persons adding hazardous waste to absorbent material in a container, if all of the following conditions are met:

     

     

    (i)      The actions occur at the site of generation at the time hazardous waste is first placed in the container.

    (ii)      Liquids are not absorbed in materials that biodegrade or that release liquids when compressed.

    (iii)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.17(b), 264.171, and 264.172 are complied with.

    (i)        Generators who have on-site treatment facilities if a generator complies with all of the following requirements:

    (i)      All treatment is conducted in either containers or tanks.

    (ii)      If the treatment occurs in containers, then all of the following requirements are complied with:

    (A)    The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart I, except 40 C.F.R. §265.173.

    (B)       The containers holding hazardous waste are always closed, except when it is necessary to add, remove, or treat the waste.

    (C)     The containers holding hazardous waste are not opened or handled in a manner that may rupture the containers or cause them to leak.

    (D)    The containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.175.

    (E)            The  generator  documents  the  inspections  required  pursuant  to  the  provisions  of 40 C.F.R. §265.174.

    (iii)        If the treatment occurs in tanks, the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart J, except for the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§265.197(c) and 265.200.

    (iv)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 265, subpart C.

    (v)       The area where the waste is treated is protected, as appropriate for the type of waste being treated, from weather, fire, physical damage, and vandals.

    (vi)        Hazardous waste treatment is conducted so that hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents cannot escape by gravity into the soil, directly or indirectly, into surface or groundwaters, or into drains or sewers and so that fugitive emissions are not in violation of part 55 of the act.

    (vii)       The closure standards of 40 C.F.R. §§265.111 and 265.114.

    (viii)        All treatment is completed within 90 days from the date that accumulation of the waste began if the generator is a large quantity generator or within 180 days from the date that the accumulation of the waste began if the generator is a small quantity generator.

    (ix)       Documentation is maintained on site which specifies the date that accumulation of the waste began, the date that treatment of the waste began, and the date that treatment of the waste was completed.

    (x)  The requirements of R 299.9602, R 299.9603(1)(b) to (f) and (4), R 299.9604, R 299.9627, and R 299.9633.

    (j)        Universal waste handlers and universal waste transporters when handling the wastes identified in R 299.9228(1). Universal waste handlers and universal waste transporters are subject to the provisions of R 299.9228 when handling the universal wastes identified in R 299.9228(1).

    (k)        Owners or operators who use a pipeline for the sole purpose of transferring wastes to and from treatment or storage tanks at the facility and bulk railcars at an off-site transfer facility, if all of the following requirements are met:

    (i)      The pipeline is owned and operated by the owner or operator.

    (ii)           The pipeline  meets  the  requirements  for  ancillary  equipment  pursuant  to  the  provisions  of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart J.

    (iii)      Wastes are not stored in the pipeline.

    (iv)       The owner or operator establishes as part of their waste analysis plan procedures for receipt of the wastes by the facility to and from the transport vehicle.

    (v)        The owner or operator uses the pipeline solely as a method of transferring wastes and not as an extension of the facility boundary beyond the area specified in their current operating license, construction permit, or authorization.

    (l)      Owners or operators of facilities which store military munitions that have been classified as a waste in accordance with part 2 of these rules unless otherwise specified in R 299.9817.

     

     

    (2)       A person who is engaged in treatment or containment activities during immediate response to a discharge of a hazardous waste, an imminent and substantial threat of a discharge of hazardous waste, a discharge of a material which, when discharged, becomes a hazardous waste, or an immediate threat to human health, public safety, property, or the environment, from the known or suspected presence of military munitions, other explosive material, or an explosive device, as determined by an explosive or munitions emergency response specialist shall not be subject to the construction permit and operating license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules. Any person who continues or initiates hazardous waste treatment or containment activities after the immediate response is over is subject to all applicable requirements of this part and part 6 of these rules, except as provided in subrule (4) of this rule. In the case of an explosives or munitions emergency response, if a federal, state, tribal or local official acting within the scope of his or her official responsibilities, or an explosives or munitions emergency response specialist, determines that immediate removal of the material or waste is necessary to protect human health or the environment, that official or specialist may authorize the removal of the material or waste by transporters who do not have EPA identification numbers. In the case of emergencies involving military munitions, the responding military emergency response specialist's organizational unit shall retain records for 3 years identifying the dates of the response, the responsible persons responding, the type and description of material addressed, and its disposition.

    (3)        The following shall be deemed to have an operating license and shall not be subject to the construction permit requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules, if the listed conditions are met:

    (a)       The owner or operator of an injection well disposing of hazardous waste, if the owner or operator meets all of the following requirements:

    (i)      Has a permit for underground injection that is issued pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 124, 144, 145, 146, and 147, subpart X.

    (ii)        Complies with the conditions of the permit and the requirements of the provisions of 40 C.F.R.

    §144.14.

    (iii)       Has a permit for underground injection that is issued pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 124, 144, 145, 146, and 147, subpart X, and that is issued after November 8, 1984, and complies with both of the following:

    (A)    The provisions of R 299.9629, Corrective action.

    (B)     Where the underground injection well is the only unit at a facility that requires a permit, complies with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.14(d).

    (b)         The owner or operator of a publicly owned treatment works that accepts hazardous waste for treatment if the waste is in compliance with all federal, state, and local pretreatment requirements that would be applicable to the waste if it were being discharged into the publicly owned treatment works (POTW) through a sewer, pipe, or similar conveyance, if the owner or operator has a national pollutant discharge elimination system (NPDES) permit and the owner or operator complies with the conditions of the permit, and if the owner or operator complies with all of the following requirements:

    (i)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.11, identification number.

    (ii)      The provisions of R 299.9608, Use of manifest system.

    (iii)      The provisions of R 299.9609, Operating record; availability, retention and disposition of records.

    (iv)      The provisions of R 299.9610, Reporting.

    (v)         For NPDES permits issued after November 8, 1984, the provisions of R 299.9629, Corrective action.

    (4)     The director shall exempt persons who conduct the following activities from the construction permit and operating license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules, but only if the exemption does not constitute a less stringent permitting requirement than is required pursuant to the provisions of RCRA:

     

     

    (a)      The treatment of hazardous waste during the closure of a treatment, storage, or disposal unit, if both of the following conditions apply:

    (i)      The treatment occurs at the site of generation.

    (ii)      The treatment is authorized in a closure plan approved by the director or his or her designee.

    (b)      Closure of an existing surface impoundment for hazardous waste that is closed as a landfill pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9616(3), if the closure is authorized in a closure plan approved by the director or his or her designee and an operating license is obtained for the postclosure period.

    (c)         The treatment, storage, or disposal o+f hazardous waste at the individual site of generation if conducted solely in response to, or as corrective action under, and in full compliance with, a plan developed or approved by the director, or his or her designee, pursuant to the provisions of part 31, 111, 201, or 213 of the act, or an administrative or judicial consent order to which the director is a party and if the treatment, storage, or disposal is conducted in accordance with the technical standards of part 6 of these rules.

    (d)      Treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste at the individual site of generation, if conducted solely in response to, or as a corrective action under, and in full compliance with CERCLA.

    (5)        The provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 124, 144, 145, 146, 147, and 265, subparts I and J, except

    §§265.197(c) and 265.200, and §§264.11, 264.17(b), 264.171, 264.172, 264.175, 265.111, 265.114, and

    268.7(a)(4) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9504 Construction permit application; content.

    Rule 504.  (1) In addition to the information that may be required pursuant to subrule (18) of this rule, all applications for a construction permit shall include all of the following items:

    (a)      A construction permit application fee or deposit as calculated pursuant to R 299.9507.

    (b)      General information that is required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.13.

    (c)      General information that is required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.14(b) and (d).

    (d)      A hydrogeological report that contains the information required pursuant to R 299.9506.

    (e)       An environmental assessment, including a failure mode assessment that provides an analysis of the potential major methods by which safe handling of hazardous wastes may fail at a treatment, storage, or disposal facility. The owner or operator of a facility that stores, treats, or disposes of hazardous waste in a surface impoundment or a landfill shall include, in the environmental assessment, information that is reasonably ascertainable by the owner or operator on the potential for the public to be exposed to hazardous wastes or hazardous constituents through releases related to the unit. At a minimum, the information shall address all of the following subjects:

    (i)        Reasonably foreseeable potential releases from both normal operations and accidents at the unit, including releases associated with transportation to or from the unit.

    (ii)        The potential pathways of human exposure to hazardous waste or constituents resulting from the releases described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision.

    (iii)       The potential magnitude and nature of the human exposure resulting from the releases described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision.

    (f)      An environmental monitoring program that is in compliance with R 299.9611.

    (g)        Engineering plans of all process equipment and containment structures at the facility. The plans shall be prepared and sealed by a registered professional engineer and shall include all of the following information:

    (i)          Plan  views,  elevations,  sections,  and  supplementary  views  that,  together  with  general  layout drawings, provide working information for the review of the facility.

    (ii)      Specifications on all construction materials and installation methods.

    (iii)      The basis of design for all process equipment and containment structures.

    (iv)      A flow diagram of the entire treatment, storage, or disposal process.

     

     

    (v)      The design capacity of each process.

    (h)           A written summary of the comments received at the preapplication meeting required by R 299.9511(1) and the applicant's response to the comments, including any revisions to the application.

    (2)     Applicants proposing to store containers of hazardous waste shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.15(a) to (e) in a construction permit application.

    (3)    Applicants proposing to store or treat hazardous waste in tanks shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.16(a) to (k) in a construction permit application.

    (4)         Applicants proposing to incinerate or thermally treat hazardous waste in a hazardous waste incinerator that becomes subject to the permitting or licensing requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, and applicants of existing hazardous waste incinerators shall submit either of the following in a construction permit application. If the owner or operator demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, by conducting a comprehensive performance   test   and    submitting    to    the    director    a    notification    of    compliance    under 40 C.F.R.§§63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b) which documents compliance with all applicable requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, then the requirements of this subrule do not apply, except those provisions the director determines are necessary to ensure compliance with 40 C.F.R. §§264.345(a) and

    (c) if the owner or operator elects to comply with 40 C.F.R. §270.235(a)(1)(i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. The director may apply this subrule, on a case-by-case basis, for collecting information pursuant to subrules (18) and (20) of this rule and R 299.9521(3)(b) and (c):

    (a)        A trial burn plan containing the information listed in 40 C.F.R. §270.62(a) to (d) and a statement that suggests the conditions necessary to operate in compliance with the performance standards of 40

    C.F.R. §264.343 during the trial burn. The statement shall include, at a minimum, restrictions on waste constituents, waste feed rates, and the operating parameters identified in 40 C.F.R. §264.345.

    (b)       In place of a trial burn plan, the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §270.19(c). The director shall approve an application without a trial burn plan if he or she determines both of the following:

    (i)        The wastes are sufficiently similar.

    (ii)        The incinerator units are sufficiently similar and the data from other trial burns are adequate to specify operating conditions that will ensure that the performance standards of 40 C.F.R. §264.343 will be met by the incinerator.

    (5)       Applicants proposing to treat hazardous waste shall submit all of the following information in a construction permit application:

    (a)      A demonstration of how the method and process proposed for the treatment of each hazardous waste will do any of the following:

    (i)      Change the physical, chemical, or biological character or composition of the waste.

    (ii)      Neutralize the waste.

    (iii)      Recover energy or material resources from the waste.

    (iv)       Render the waste nonhazardous, safer for handling or transport, amenable to recovery, amenable to storage, or reduced in volume.

    (v)      Chemically bind or render the toxic constituents nonhazardous rather than only diluted.

    (b)        The proper treatment technique, the proper feed rates of treatment chemicals or reagents, and the proper operating conditions, such as temperature, pressure, and flow rate, for the types of hazardous wastes proposed for treatment, and the accuracy of the devices intended to measure these parameters.

    (c)        If the hazardous waste or treatment chemicals or reagents will have any detrimental effect on the materials used for construction, such as causing corrosion, dissolution, saltings, or sealings. If detrimental effects are possible, then the method of controlling them shall be specified.

     

     

    (d)         If the hazardous waste contains any constituents or contaminants that may interfere with the intended treatment process or decrease the effectiveness of the treatment and, if so, how the interferences will be controlled.

    (e)        If the hazardous waste contains constituents or contaminants that may cause the release of toxic gases or fumes during the intended treatment and, if so, how they will be controlled.

    (f)       If the hazardous waste contains constituents or contaminants that may form toxic constituents with the treatment chemicals or reagents during the intended treatment and, if so, how they will be controlled.

    (g)        Trial tests, including bench scale, pilot plant scale, or other appropriate tests, on each hazardous waste that is new or significantly different from hazardous waste previously treated to verify the information required in subdivision (b) of this subrule.

    (6)      Applicants proposing to treat or store hazardous wastes in surface impoundments shall submit the following information in a construction permit application:

    (a)      The information required for surface impoundments pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.17(a) to (j).

    (b)       Information on the proposed liner, leachate collection, and leak detection, collection, and removal systems, as specified in R 299.9505.

    (7)       Applicants proposing to treat or store hazardous waste in waste piles shall submit the following information in a construction permit application:

    (a)      The information required for waste piles pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.18.

    (b)         For new waste piles, information on the proposed liner, leachate collection, and leak detection, collection, and removal systems, as specified in R 299.9505.

    (8)      Applicants proposing to landfill hazardous waste shall submit all of the following information in a construction permit application:

    (a)      The information required for landfills pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.21.

    (b)       Information on the proposed liner, leachate collection, and leak detection, collection, and removal systems, as specified in R 299.9505.

    (c)       Detailed engineering plans and an engineering report describing the final cover that will be applied to the landfill or each landfill cell pursuant to R 299.9619.

    (9)     Applicants proposing to dispose of hazardous wastes by land treatment shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.20 in a construction permit application.

    (10)       Applicants proposing facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in miscellaneous units shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.23 in a construction permit application.

    (11)     Applicants proposing facilities that store or dispose of hazardous waste in an underground mine or cave shall submit all of the following information in a construction permit application:

    (a)      A geologic report that contains the following information:

    (i)         For the receiving formation and other formations that are within 30 feet above and below the receiving formation, an applicant shall provide all of the following information:

    (A)    The depth from the surface.

    (B)    Thickness.

    (C)    Permeability.

    (D)    Solubility.

    (E)    Reactivity.

    (F)     Compatibility.

    (G)    Composition.

    This information shall be obtained by performing not less than 5 borings for the first 5 acres of the entire mine or cave and 3 borings for each additional 5 acres. Each boring site shall consist of a ceiling boring and a floor boring.

     

     

    (ii)       For the formations that are overlying the receiving formation for a lateral extent of not less than 5 miles from the facility boundary, an applicant shall provide all of the following information:

    (A)    The depth from the surface.

    (B)    Thickness.

    (C)    Composition.

    (D)    The identification of water, oil, or gas-bearing formations.

    This information shall be obtained from existing geological information and reports.

    (b)       An assessment of the potential for water intrusion into the mine or cave. This assessment shall be used in the evaluation pursuant to R 299.9628(3)(a).

    (c)       Information on the means of transporting waste from any surface operation to the final disposal or storage area in the receiving formation and information on the means of preventing the release of hazardous constituents during transportation.

    (d)      An assessment of the structural stability of the mine or cave.

    (e)        Information on the proposed means of controlling the use, access, and penetration of the mine or cave.

    (f)      A demonstration that a sufficient buffer zone or other control exists to ensure that off-site activities will not adversely impact the integrity of the mine or cave.

    (g)          A proposed means of correlating waste placement locations to surface locations and a waste placement map.

    (h)      A proposed means of managing water in the mine or cave so as to maintain the integrity of the mine or cave and protect human health and the environment throughout the facility's active life and after closure of the facility.

    (12)      Applicants proposing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that have process vents to which R 299.9630 applies shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.24 in a construction permit application.

    (13)     Applicants proposing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that have equipment to which R 299.9631 applies shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.25 in a construction permit application.

    (14)     Applicants proposing treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that collect, store, or treat hazardous waste on drip pads shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.26 in a construction permit application.

    (15)      Applicants proposing to burn hazardous waste in a boiler or industrial furnace shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.22.

    (16)       Applicants proposing hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facilities that have tanks, surface impoundments, or containers to which R 299.9634 applies shall submit the information required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.27 in a construction permit application.

    (17)      Construction permit applications shall be signed and certified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.11. In addition, the application shall be signed by the titleholder of the land upon which the facility is proposed to be located.

    (18)       The director may require a licensee or applicant to submit additional information to establish license conditions pursuant to R 299.9521.

    (19)         A licensee or applicant may demonstrate to the director, or his or her designee, that less information than that specified in this rule is necessary to determine conformance with the requirements of part 6 of these rules and establish permit or license conditions pursuant to this part. If the licensee or applicant demonstrates that less information is required, the director, or his or her designee, shall waive the information requirement, except that the director, or his or her designee, shall not require less information than is required by RCRA.

     

     

    (20)      If the director concludes, based on 1 or more of the factors listed in 40 C.F.R.§270.10(l)(1), that compliance with the standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE alone may not be protective of human health or the environment, the director shall require additional information or assessments to determine if additional controls are necessary to ensure protection of human health and the environment.  This includes information necessary to evaluate the potential risk to human health or the environment resulting from both direct and indirect exposure pathways.  The director may also require a licensee or applicant to provide the information necessary to determine if such an assessment should be required.  (201)  The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.343, 264.345, 266.102(e), 266.104 to 266.107, 270.10(l)(1), 270.11, 270.13, 270.14(b) and (d), 270.15(a) to (e), 270.16(a) to (k), 270.17(a) to (j), 270.18, 270.19(c), 270.20,  270.21,  270.22,  270.23,  270.24,  270.25,  270.26,  270.27,  270.62(a)  to  (d),  270.66,  and 270.235(a)(1)(i) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003, with the exception that the term "waste management unit" shall replace the term "solid waste management unit."

     

    R 299.9519 Modification, revocation, and suspension of construction permits and operating licenses during their terms.

    Rule 519. (1) An owner or operator shall construct, operate, and maintain a facility pursuant to part 111 of the act, these rules, and the construction permit or operating license issued to the facility pursuant to part 111 of the act. Any deviation from the conditions of a permit or license or from approved plans shall require prior approval by the director, unless otherwise specified in this rule, and, if necessary, modification of the permit or license.

    (2)        If the director receives any information during the term of a construction permit or operating license, for example, inspects the facility, receives information submitted by the licensee as required in the license, receives a request for modification or revocation pursuant to this rule, or conducts a review of the license file, then he or she may determine if 1 or more of the causes listed in subrule (3) of this rule for modification or subrule (11) of this rule for revocation, or both, exist. If cause exists, the director may commence proceedings pursuant to act 306 to modify or revoke a construction permit or operating license accordingly, subject to the limitation of subrule (4) of this rule, and may request an updated application pursuant to R 299.9520, if necessary. If an operating license is modified, then only the conditions subject to modification are reopened. If a construction permit or operating license modification satisfies the criteria of subrule (5) of this rule for a minor modification, or if the director has not yet been authorized pursuant to 40 C.F.R. part 271, then the license may be modified pursuant to subrule (6) of this rule.  Otherwise, a draft license shall be prepared and other procedures specified in R 299.9511 followed.

    (3)     Any of the following are causes for modification of a construction permit or operating license:

    (a)      The causes listed pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.41(a), except 40 C.F.R. §270.41(a)(3).

    (b)        If the standards or regulations on which the permit or license was based have been changed by statute, through promulgation of new or amended standards or regulations, or by judicial decision after the permit or license was issued.

    (c)      To modify a monitoring program pursuant to R 299.9611 or R 299.9612.

    (d)       Cause exists for modification pursuant to subrule (5) of this rule and the director determines that modification is appropriate.

    (e)       The director has received notification pursuant to R 299.95212 of a proposed transfer of ownership or operation.

    (4)      The director shall not consider suitability of the facility location at the time of construction permit or operating license modification, suspension, or revocation, or at the time of reviewing the initial operating license for a facility that received a construction permit, unless new information or standards indicate that a threat to human health or the environment exists which was unknown at the time of

     

     

    permit or license issuance.  In addition, the director shall not modify a construction permit beyond what is authorized in the construction permit.

    (5)      The permittee or licensee may put into effect the following minor permit modifications or minor license modifications without following the procedures specified in R 299.9511, if the permittee or licensee complies with subrule (6) of this rule:

    (a)      Any of the following general permit or license modifications:

    (i)      An administrative and information change.

    (ii)      A correction of a typographical error.

    (iii)         Equipment replacement or upgrading with functionally equivalent elements, for example pipes, valves, pumps, conveyors, or controls.

    (iv)        A change in the frequency of, or procedures for, monitoring, reporting, sampling, or maintenance activities to provide for more frequent monitoring, reporting, sampling, or maintenance.

    (v)      A change in the interim compliance dates in the schedule of compliance if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (vi)           A change in the expiration date of the permit or license to allow earlier permit or license termination if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (vii)          A change in the ownership or operational control of a facility if the procedures specified in R 299.9522 are followed and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (viii)           Changes to remove operating license  or construction permit conditions  that are no longer applicable because the standards upon which they are based are no longer applicable to the facility if prior written approval from the director is obtained.

    (b)      Any of the following general facility modifications:

    (i)      A change to waste sampling or analysis methods to conform to agency guidelines or regulations.

    (ii)         A change to waste sampling or analysis methods to incorporate change associated with F039 (multisource leachate) sampling or analysis methods.

    (iii)       A change to waste sampling or analysis methods to incorporate changes associated with underlying hazardous constituents in ignitable or corrosive wastes if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iv)       A change in a sampling or analysis procedure or monitoring schedule if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (v)      A change to analytical quality assurance/control plans to conform to department guidelines or rules.

    (vi)      A change in procedures for maintaining the operating record.

    (vii)          A change in the contingency plan to reflect the replacement of emergency equipment with functionally equivalent equipment, the upgrade of emergency equipment, or the relocation of emergency equipment listed.

    (viii)         A change to the training plan, other than those changes that affect the type of, or decrease the amount of, training given to employees.

    (ix)       The replacement of emergency equipment with functionally equivalent emergency equipment, the upgrade of emergency equipment, or the relocation of emergency equipment listed in the contingency plan.

    (x)         A change in the name, address, or phone number of a coordinator or another person or agency identified in the contingency plan.

    (xi)         A change in the procedures used to empty hazardous waste from transport vehicles and other containers.

    (xii)       A change that the construction quality assurance officer certifies will provide equivalent or better certainty that the unit components meet the design specifications. The certification shall be provided in the facility operating record.

    (c)      Any of the following groundwater protection modifications:

     

     

    (i)      Replacement of an existing well that has been damaged or rendered inoperable without changing the location, design, or depth of the well.

    (ii)      A change in groundwater sampling or analysis procedure or monitoring schedule if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iii)          A change in statistical procedure for determining whether a statistically significant change in groundwater quality between upgradient and downgradient wells has occurred if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (d)      Any of the following changes to closure plans:

    (i)      A change in the estimate of maximum inventory of waste on site at any time during the active life of the facility, not to exceed the approved process design capacity of the facility if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (ii)      A change in the closure schedule for any unit, a change in the final closure schedule for the facility, or extension of the closure period if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iii)      A change in the expected year of final closure, if other permit or license conditions are not changed and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iv)         A change in procedure for the decontamination of facility equipment or structures if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (v)         The addition of temporary tanks used for neutralization, dewatering, phase separation, or other separation with the prior written approval of the director.

    (e)      Any of the following postclosure modifications:

    (i)      A change in the name, address, or phone number of the contact person in the postclosure plan.

    (ii)      A change in the expected year of final closure if other permit or license conditions are not changed.

    (f)      The addition of a roof to a container unit without altering the containment system.

    (g)       The replacement of a tank with a tank that is in compliance with the same design standards, has the same capacity of the replaced tank, and is in compliance with the same conditions in the permit or license, or both.

    (h)       The replacement of a waste pile unit with another waste pile unit of the same design and capacity and which is in compliance with all the waste pile conditions in the permit or license, or both.

    (i)      Any of the following land treatment modification:

    (i)      A decreased rate of waste application.

    (ii)       A change in any condition specified in the permit or license for a land treatment unit to reflect the results of the land treatment demonstration if performance standards are met and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iii)       A change to allow a second land treatment demonstration to be conducted when the results of the first demonstration have not shown the conditions under which the wastes can be treated completely, if the conditions for the second demonstration are substantially the same as the conditions for the first demonstration and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (j)      Any of the following incinerator, boiler, or industrial furnace modifications:

    (i)       Authorization of up to an additional 720 hours of waste burning during the shakedown period for determining operation readiness after construction if the prior written approval of the director  is obtained.

    (ii)      A change in the operating requirements specified in the permit or license for conducting a trial burn, if the change is minor and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iii)      A change in the ranges of the operating requirements specified in the permit or license to reflect the results of the trial burn, if the change is minor and if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

    (iv)        Substitution of an alternate type of nonhazardous waste fuel that is not specified in the permit or license if the prior written approval of the director is obtained.

     

     

    (v)       Technology changes necessary to meet the standards under 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, if the owner or operator  complied  with  the  notification  of  intent  to  comply  requirements  of  40  C.F.R.

    §63.1210 that were in effect before October 11, 2000, and if prior written approval is obtained from the director.

    (k)        Technology changes necessary to meet the standards under 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE that were promulgated on October 12, 2005, if the owner or operator complied with the notification of intent to comply requirements of 40 C.F.R. §§63.1210(b) and 63.1212(a) and if prior written approval is obtained from the director.

    (l)       Waiver of operating and emission limits as necessary to support the transition to 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, if all of the following requirements are met and if prior written approval is obtained from the director:

    (i)       The specific operating and emission limits for which the waiver is requested shall be identified in writing.

    (ii)        An explanation of why the changes are necessary to minimize or eliminate conflicts between the permit or license and the maximum achievable control technology standards compliance shall be provided in writing.

    (iii)         An explanation of how the rised provisions will be sufficiently protective shall be provided in writing.

    (iv)       If the modification is being requested in conjunction with maximum achievable control technology performance testing where the permit or license limits may only be waived during actual test events and pretesting, as defined under 40 C.F.R. §63.1207(h)(2)(i) and (ii), for an aggregate time not to exceed 720 hours of operation, the request shall be provided at the same time the test plans are submitted to the director. The director may approve or deny the request contingent upon approval of the test plans.

    (m)      ) Any of the following burden reduction changes:

    (i)       The development of 1 contingency plan based on integrated contingency plan guidance pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.52(b).

    (ii)              Changes to recordkeeping  or reporting requirements pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §§264.56(i), 264.113(e)(5), 264.196(f), 264.343(a)(2), 264.1061(b)(1) or (d), or 264.1062(a)(2), or R 299.9629(10).

    (iii)      Changes to the inspection frequency for tank systems pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.195(b).

    (iv)         Changes to a detection or a compliance monitoring program pursuant to 40 C.F.R.§§264.98(d), (g)(2), or (g)(3), or 264.99(f) or (g).

    (6)      For minor permit modifications or minor license modifications, the permittee or licensee shall do both of the following:

    (a)      Notify the director concerning the minor modification by certified mail or other means that establish proof of delivery. For minor modifications that do not require the prior written approval of the director, the notification shall be made within 7 calendar days after the change is put into effect. For minor modifications that do require the prior written approval of the director, the notification shall be made before the change is put into effect. The notification shall be in compliance with all of the following provisions:

    (i)      Contain a minor modification request for the director's approval, if required.

    (ii)      Specify the exact change or changes being made or to be made to the permit or license conditions or supporting documents referenced by the permit or license.

    (iii)      Identify that the modification is a minor modification.

    (iv)      Explain why the modification is necessary.

    (v)      Provide the applicable information required pursuant to R 299.9504 and R 299.9508, as appropriate.

    (b)       Send a notice of the minor modification to all persons on the facility mailing list that is maintained by the director pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §124.10(c)(viii) and the appropriate units of state and local government pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §124.10(c)(ix).  The notification shall be made within 90 days after

     

     

    the change is put into effect. For minor modifications that require the prior written approval of the director, the notification shall be made within 90 calendar days after the director approves the minor modification request.

    (7)      Any person may request that the director review any minor permit modification or minor license modification. The director may reject for cause. The director shall inform the permittee or licensee by certified mail that a minor permit modification or minor license modification has been rejected and explain the reasons for the rejection. If a minor permit modification or minor license modification is rejected, the permittee or licensee shall comply with the existing permit or license conditions.

    (8)     For minor permit modifications or minor license modifications, the permittee or licensee may elect to follow the procedures specified in R 299.9511 instead of the minor permit modification or minor license modification procedures. The permittee or licensee shall inform the director of this decision in the notice that is required in subrule (6) of this rule.

    (9)     Any modification that is not specifically listed in subrule (5) of this rule shall be considered a major permit  modification  or  major  license  modification  and  shall  be  subject  to  the  requirements  of R 299.9511 and R 299.9520, unless all of the following conditions are met:

    (a)          The licensee or permittee demonstrates, to the director's satisfaction, that a modification is in compliance with the criteria for a minor modification. In determining the appropriate classification for a modification, the director shall consider the similarity of the modification to other modifications listed in subrule (5) of this rule. Minor modifications apply to minor changes that keep the permit or license current with routine changes to the facility or its operation. These changes do not substantially alter the permit or license conditions or reduce the capacity of the facility to protect human health or the environment.

    (b)         The modification does not authorize the physical construction of a new treatment, storage, or disposal facility; the expansion or enlargement beyond the previously authorized design capacity or area of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility; or the alteration of the method of treatment or disposal previously authorized at a treatment, storage, or disposal facility to a different method of treatment or disposal.

    (c)      The classification of the modification is not less stringent than that allowed pursuant to RCRA.

    (10)       For major permit modifications or major license modifications, the permittee or licensee shall submit a major modification request to the director by certified mail or by other means that establish proof of delivery. The request shall be made before the change is put into effect. The request shall be in compliance with all of the following provisions:

    (a)       Describe the exact change or changes to be made to the permit or license conditions or supporting documents referenced by the permit or license.

    (b)      Identify that the modification is a major modification.

    (c)      Explain why the modification is necessary.

    (d)      Provide the applicable information required pursuant to R 299.9504 and R 299.9508, as appropriate.

    (11)     A construction permit or operating license may be revoked for any of the following reasons:

    (a)      Noncompliance by the permittee or licensee with part 111 of the act, these rules, or any condition of the construction permit or operating license.

    (b)      A determination that the licensed activity endangers human health or the environment.

    (c)       The owner or operator fails in the application or during the construction permit or operating license issuance process to disclose fully all relevant facts or at any time misrepresents any relevant facts.

    (12)      Requests for construction permit or operating license modification by a permittee or licensee and updated applications requested by the director pursuant to subrule (2) of this rule shall be made on forms provided by the director.

    (13)     An operating license may be suspended pursuant to act 306.

     

     

    (14)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE and §§264.52(b), 264.56(i), 264.98(d) and (g)(2) and (3), 264.99(f) and (g), 264.113(e)(5), 264.195(b), 264.196(f), 264.343(a)(2), 264.1061(b)(1) and (d), 264.1062(a)(2), 270.41(a), except 40 C.F.R. §270.41(a)(3), are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9521 Operating license conditions.

    Rule 521. (1) All operating licenses shall contain all of the following general conditions:

    (a)       The general conditions contained in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.30, except §270.30(l)(1) and (8). For purposes of these conditions the word "licensee" shall replace the word "permittee" and the term "part 111 of the act" shall replace the term "RCRA."

    (b)      The following additional conditions:

    (i)          The licensee shall not initiate an enlargement, alteration, or expansion beyond the previously authorized design capacity or area of a treatment, storage, or disposal facility without first obtaining a construction permit from the director.

    (ii)      For a facility being modified, the permittee or licensee shall not treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste in the modified portion of the facility until 1 of the following conditions is met:

    (A)     The licensee has submitted, to the director, by certified mail or hand delivery, a letter signed by the permittee and a registered professional engineer stating that the facility has been constructed or modified in compliance with the license and approved plans, and the director has inspected the modified facility and finds it is in compliance with the conditions of the license.

    (B)      Within 15 days of the date of submission of the letter in subparagraph (A) of this paragraph, the licensee has not received notice from the director of his or her intent to inspect, prior inspection is waived, and the licensee may commence treatment, storage, or disposal of hazardous waste.

    (iii)         The licensee shall obtain the approval of the director by a modification to the license before transferring ownership or operation of the facility to another person. The new owner or operator shall not accept hazardous waste at the facility until the license modification has been issued by the director.

    (c)          Other conditions determined to be necessary by the director to clarify procedures for license issuance, reissuance, modification, and revocation under act 306.

    (2)        In addition to conditions required in all licenses, the director shall establish conditions on a case-by-case basis for all of the following:

    (a)      Compliance schedules, if applicable, consistent with the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.33.

    (b)        Requirements for recording and reporting monitoring results, as specified in the provisions of 40

    C.F.R. §270.31 and part 6 of these rules.

    (c)      Duration of the permit or license under R 299.9516.

    (d)      Allowable waste types.

    (3)      Each construction permit and operating license under part 111 of the act shall include conditions necessary to do the following:

    (a)         Achieve compliance with part 111 of the act and these rules, including each of the applicable requirements of parts 6 and 8 of these rules. In satisfying this provision, the director shall incorporate applicable requirements of part 6 directly into the permit or license or establish other conditions that are based on these requirements. For the purpose of this paragraph, an applicable requirement is a statutory or regulatory requirement which takes effect before final administrative disposition of a permit or license or any requirement which takes effect before the modification of a permit or license under R 299.9519.

    (b)      Protect human health and the environment.

    (c)         If, as a result of an assessment or other information, the director determines that conditions are necessary in addition to those required under 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, or the the applicable requirements of parts 6 and 8 of these rules to ensure protection of human health and the environment,

     

     

    the director shall include those terms and conditions in the construction permit and operating license for a hazardous waste combustion unit.

    (4)       New, reissued, and, to the extent allowed under R 299.9519, modified permits or licenses shall incorporate each of the applicable requirements referenced in this rule.

    (5)    A condition of a construction permit or operating license shall be incorporated either expressly or by reference. If incorporated by reference, a specific citation to the applicable regulations or requirements shall be given in the permit or license.

    (6)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, §270.30, except  §270.30(l)(1) and (8), §270.31, and §270.33 are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9601 Applicability; relationship to interim status standards.

    Rule 601.  (1)  The standards in this part apply to owners and operators of all facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste, except as otherwise specifically provided in these rules.

    (2)     Treatment, storage, or disposal facilities which are authorized to operate pursuant to these rules and which have not been issued or reissued an operating license after the effective date of these rules shall be in compliance with all of the following rules:

    (a)      R 299.9602 Environmental and human health standards generally.

    (b)      R 299.9607 Contingency plan and emergency procedures.

    (c)      R 299.9608 Use of manifest system.

    (d)      R 299.9609 Operating record; retention and disposition of records.

    (e)      R 299.9610 Reporting.

    (f)      R 299.9613(2) to (6) Closure and postclosure.

    (g)      R 299.9614 Use and management of containers.

    (h)      R 299.9615 Tank systems.

    (i)      R 299.9623 Incinerators.

    (j)      R 299.9627 Land disposal restrictions.

    (k)      R 299.9629 Corrective action.

    (l)      R 299.9635 Corrective action management unit requirements.

    (m)      R 299.9636 Temporary unit requirements.

    (n)      R 299.9637 Hazardous waste munitions and explosives storage.

    (o)      R 299.9638 Staging pile requirements.

    (p)         R 299.9639   Disposal of corrective action management unit-eligible waste in hazardous wastes landfills.

    In addition to the requirements specified in subrule (2) of this rule, the following persons shall comply with the interim status standards of 40 C.F.R. part 265, except subparts D, E, H, I, J, O, and DD, and 40 C.F.R. §§265.112(d)(1), 265.115, and 265.120:

    (a)       An owner or operator of an existing facility that treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste who has fully complied with the requirements for interim status pursuant to section 3005(e) of RCRA and 40 C.F.R. §270.10, until final administrative disposition of the owner's or operator's permit application pursuant to RCRA or until an operating license is issued or reissued to the owner or operator after the effective date of these rules.

    (b)       An owner or operator of a facility that is in existence on November 19, 1980, or that is in existence on the effective date of amendments to part 111 of the act or these rules that render it subject to the licensing requirements of part 111 of the act, who has failed to provide timely notification as required by section 3010(a) of RCRA or failed to file part A of the permit application as required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.10(e) and (g).

    (4)       The requirements of this part apply to a person who disposes of hazardous waste by means of underground injection subject to a permit issued pursuant to an underground injection control program

     

     

    approved or promulgated under the federal safe drinking water act only to the extent that these requirements are included in R 299.9503(3)(a).

    (5)      The requirements of this part apply to the owner or operator of a publicly owned treatment works that treats, stores, or disposes of hazardous waste only to the extent that these requirements are included in R 299.9503(3)(b).

    (6)      The standards in this part do not apply to those persons who are listed in R 299.9503(1) and (2), except as otherwise specified by those subrules.

    (7)       Except as noted in this subrule, part 6 of the rules does not apply to owners and operators of hazardous waste incinerator facilities identified in subrule (2) of this rule if the owner or operator demonstrates compliance with the maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting to the director a notification of compliance under 40 C.F.R.§§63.1207(j) and 63.1210(b) which documents compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE. The maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE do not supersede the requirements of R 299.9608 to R 299.9610 and part 7 of these rules, and 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts A to D, F, G, BB, and CC.

    (8)     Notwithstanding any other provisions of these rules, enforcement actions may be brought pursuant to section 48 of part 111 of the act.

    (9)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.10 and 40 C.F.R. part 265, except subparts E, H, O, and DD, and 40 C.F.R. §§265.112(d)(1), 265.115, and 265.120, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. Where provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 264, 265, and 270 are referenced in this part, the word "director" shall replace the term "regional administrator" and the words "operating license" shall replace the word "permit."  For the purposes of this adoption, the word "R 299.9629" shall replace the word "40 C.F.R.

    §264.101(a)," the words "part 5 of these rules" shall replace the word "40 C.F.R. §270.1(c)(7)," and the words "R 299.9703(8) and R 299.9710(17)" shall replace the word "40 C.F.R. §265.140(d)," and the words "R 299.9612 and R 299.9629" shall replace the words "40 C.F.R. §§264.91 through 264.100."

     

    R 299.9605 General requirements for owners and operators.

    Rule 605. (1) The owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility shall comply with all of the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B, except §264.15(b)(5), unless otherwise specified in this rule. In addition to the notice requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.12, the owner or operator shall, before transferring ownership or operation of a facility during its operating life or during any required postclosure care period, notify the new owner or operator, in writing, of the requirements of this part and part 5 of these rules.

    (2)     Hazardous waste transport vehicles and other containers leaving a designated facility shall be empty of hazardous waste in accordance with the provisions of R 299.9207 or accompanied by a manifest that is prepared in accordance with the provisions of these rules. The owner or operator shall develop and implement a procedure for insuring compliance with this subrule. If a transport vehicle or other container is not empty, then the owner or operator shall either take all steps required in the procedure to insure that the provisions of R 299.9207 are complied with or insure that the hazardous waste that remains in the vehicle or containers is accompanied by a manifest that is prepared in accordance with the provisions of these rules when leaving the designated facility.

    (3)     The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B do not apply to remediation waste management sites, other than those sites which are located at facilities that are subject to the permitting or licensing requirements under part 111 of the act and these rules because the facility is also treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous wastes that are not remediation wastes, provided that the owners or operators of the remediation waste management sites comply with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.1(j)(1) to (13).

    (4)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B, except §264.15(b)(5), and §264.1(j)(1) to (13) are adopted  by  reference  in  R 299.11003.    For the  purposes  of  this  adoption,  the  words  "regional

     

     

    administrator" shall be replaced by the word "director" and the word "§264.101" shall be replaced by the word "R 299.9629."

     

    R 299.9607 Contingency plan and emergency procedures.

    Rule 607. (1) Owners or operators of hazardous waste treatment, storage, and disposal facilities shall maintain a contingency plan for the facility and comply with 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart D, regarding the plan and emergency procedures, unless otherwise specified in this rule.

    (2)     If there is a fire, explosion, or other release of hazardous waste or hazardous waste constituents that could threaten human health or the environment, or if the owner or operator has knowledge that a spill has reached surface water or groundwater, then the owner or operator shall immediately notify the department's pollution emergency alerting system - telephone number 800-292-4706. The notification shall include all of the following information:

    (a)      The name and telephone number of the person who is reporting the incident.

    (b)      The name, address, telephone number, and site identification number of the facility.

    (c)      The name, address, and telephone number of the owner or operator.

    (d)      The date, time, and type of incident.

    (e)      The name and quantity of the material or materials involved and released.

    (f)      The extent of injuries, if any.

    (g)      The estimated quantity and disposition of recovered material that resulted from the incident, if any.

    (h)      An assessment of actual or potential hazards to human health or the environment.

    (i)      The immediate response action taken.

    (3)     The requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart D do not apply to remediation waste management sites, other than those sites which are located at facilities that are subject to the permitting or licensing requirements under part 111 of the act and these rules because the facility is also treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous wastes that are not remediation wastes, provided that the owners or operators of the remediation waste management sites comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.1(j)(1) to (13).

    (4)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart D, and §264.1(j)(1) to (13) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of the adoption by reference of 40 C.F.R. §264.52(b), the words "construction permit or operating license" shall replace the words "RCRA permit." For the purposes of the adoption of 40 C.F.R. §264.56(j) and §264.1(j)(1) to (13), the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator" and the word "R 299.9629" shall replace the word "§264.101," respectively.

     

    R 299.9608 Use of manifest system.

    Rule 608. (1) If a facility receives hazardous waste accompanied by a manifest, then the owner or operator, or his or her agent, shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.71(a) do all of the following:

    (a) Sign and date each copy of the manifest to certify that the hazardous waste covered by the manifest  was received.

    (b) Note any significant discrepancies in the manifest on each copy of the manifest. (c) Immediately give the transporter at least 1 copy of the signed manifest.

    (d)Within 30 days after the delivery, send a copy of the manifest to the generator.

    (e) Retain, at the facility, a copy of each manifest for not less than 3 years from the date of delivery.

    (f)      and return a legible copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee within a period of 10 days after the end of the month in which the waste was received. If the generator state and the destination state are the same, the owner or operator, or his or her agent, shall only submit 1 copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee.

    (2)      If a facility receives a bulk shipment of hazardous waste from a rail or water transporter which is accompanied by a shipping paper containing all the information required on the manifest, excluding the

     

     

    site identification numbers, generator's certification, and signatures, then the owner or operator, or the owner or operator's agent, shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.71(b) do all of the following:

    (a) Sign and date each copy of the manifest or shipping paper to certify that the hazardous waste covered by the manifest or shipping paper was received.

    (b) Note any significant discrepancies in the manifest or shipping paper on each copy of the manifest and shipping paper.

    (c) Immediately give the rail or water (bulk shipment) transporter at least 1 copy of the manifest or  shipping paper.

    (d)Within 30 days after the delivery, send a copy of the signed and dated manifest to the generator; or, if the manifest has not been received within 30 days after delivery, send a copy of the shipping paper signed and dated to the generator.

    (e) Retain, at the facility, a copy of the manifest and shipping paper, for not less than 3 years from the date of delivery.

    (f)      and return a legible copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee within a period of 10 days after the end of the month in which the waste was received. If the generator state and the destination state are the same, the owner or operator, or his or her agent, shall only submit 1 copy of the manifest to the director or his or her designee.

    (3)       If a shipment of hazardous waste is initiated from a facility, then the owner or operator of that facility shall comply with the requirements of part 3 of these rules.

    (64) Within 3 working days of the receipt of a shipment subject to R 299.9312, the owner or operator shall provide a copy of the tracking document bearing all required signatures to the notifier, to the Office of Enforcement and Compliance Assurance, Office of Compliance, Enforcement Planning, and Targeting and Data Division (2222A), U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 401 M Street, SW, Washington DC 20460, and to competent authorities of all other concerned countries. The owner or operator shall maintain the original copy of the tracking document at the facility for not less than 3 years from the date of signature.

    (5) The owner or operator shall determine if the consignment state for a shipment regulates any additional wastes, beyond those regulated federally, as hazardous wastes under its state hazardous waste program. The owner or operator shall also determine if the consignment state or the generator state requires the owner or operator to submit any copies of the manifests to these states.

    (46) Upon discovering a significant manifest discrepancy, as defined in 40 C.F.R. §264.72(a) and (b), the owner or operator shall comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.72(c) to (g) attempt to reconcile the discrepancy with the waste generator or transporter through telephone conversations or otherwise. If the discrepancy is not resolved within 15 days after receiving the waste, then the owner or operator shall immediately submit, to the director and regional administrator, a letter describing the discrepancy and attempts to reconcile it and a copy of the manifest or shipping paper at issue. Significant manifest discrepancies are differences between the quantity or type of hazardous waste designated on the manifest or shipping paper and the quantity or type of hazardous waste a facility actually receives, as follows:

    (a) For bulk waste, significant discrepancies are variations of more than 10% in weight.

    (b) For batch waste, a significant discrepancy is any variation in piece count, such as a discrepancy of 1 drum in a truckload.

    (c) Significant discrepancies in type are obvious differences which can be discovered by inspection or  waste analysis, such as waste solvent substituted for waste acid or toxic constituents not reported on the manifest or shipping paper.

    (5) A significant manifest discrepancy, as specified in this rule, which results in a total or partial rejected shipment requires all of the following:

    (a) For a total rejected shipment, the owner or operator shall comply with all of the following requirements:

     

     

    (i) Indicate on the original manifest, the reason for the rejection and the date of rejection and signature. (ii) Leave the facility owner or operator certification of receipt portion of the original manifest unsigned and undated.

    (iii) Retain the facility copy of the original manifest.

    (iv) Obtain acknowledgement of receipt by having the transporter sign and date the original manifest.  (v) Return the remaining copies of the original manifest to the transporter.

    (b) For a partial rejected shipment, the owner or operator shall comply with all of the following requirements:

    (i) Obtain permission from the generator to receive a portion of the original shipment.

    (ii) Indicate on the original manifest, the reason for the rejection, the quantity of waste rejected, and the name of the generator contact authorizing the receipt of a portion of the original shipment.

    (iii) Line out the total quantity of waste information on the original manifest and note the new quantity  of waste that is being accepted at the facility.

     (iv) Obtain acknowledgement of receipt by having the transporter sign and date the original manifest.

     (v) Complete the facility owner or operator certification of receipt portion of the original manifest.

    (vi) and distribute copies of the manifest pursuant to subrules (1) and (2) of this rule.

    (7)      The requirements of this rule do not apply to owners or operators of off-site facilities with respect to waste military munitions exempted from manifesting requirements under R 299.9818.

    (8)     The provisions  of  40  C.F.R.  §§264.71(a)  and  (b)  and  264.72  are  adopted  by  reference  in R 299.11003. For the purposes of these adoptions, the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator," the words "site identification number" shall replace the words "EPA identification number," the term "R 299.9207" shall replace the term "40 CFR 261.7(b)," and the term "R 299.9304(1)(a)" shall replace the term "40 CFR 262.20(a)."

     

    R 299.9609 Operating record; availability, retention and disposition of records.

    Rule 609. (1) An owner or operator shall keep a written operating record at his or her facility, or in an alternate location approved by the director or the director’s designee. The following information shall be recorded as it becomes available and shall be maintained in the operating record until closure of the facility:

    (a)      The information required by the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.73 and 40 C.F.R. part 264, appendix I.

    (b)       Any other records required to be kept in the operating record by a construction permit or operating license.

    (2)       All records, including plans, required under this part shall be furnished upon request, and made available at all reasonable times for inspection, by any officer, employee, or representative of the department who is duly designated by the director.

    (3)      The retention period for all records required under this part is extended automatically during the course of any unresolved enforcement action regarding the facility or as requested by the director or administrator.

    (4)      A copy of records of waste disposal locations and quantities under subrule (1) of this rule shall be submitted to the director, or his or her designee, the regional administrator, and local land authority upon closure of the facility.

    (5)         The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.73 and part 264, appendix I, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9610 Reporting.

    Rule 610. (1) The owner or operator shall provide prepare and submit 1 copy of a biennial report to the department director or the director's designee by March 1 of each even numbered year all of the data necessary for the department to prepare documentation, such as Michigan's hazardous waste report,

     

     

    which the department shall submit to the EPA when required. The owner or operator shall submit the data biennial report on a form and in a format specified by the director or the director's designee. The data report shall be provided as part of the manifests required in Parts 3 and 6 of the rules, the monthly operating reports required in subule (3) of this rule, or other reporting mechanism requested by the director or his or her designee. The data cover facility activities during the previous calendar year and shall include all of the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §264.75(a) to (j).

    (2)      If a facility accepts for treatment, storage, or disposal any hazardous waste from an off-site source without an accompanying manifest or without an accompanying shipping paper as described in 40

    C.F.R. §263.20(e), and if the waste is not excluded from the manifest requirement by R 299.9205, then the owner or operator shall prepare and submit a single copy of a report to the director or his or her designee within 15 days after receiving the waste.  The unmanifested waste report shall be submitted on a form approved by the director. The report shall be designated "Unmanifested Waste Report" and shall include all of the following information:

    (a)      The site identification number, name, and address of the facility.

    (b)      The date the facility received the waste.

    (c)      The site identification number, name, and address of the generator and the transporter, if available.

    (d)      A description and the quantity of each unmanifested hazardous waste and facility received.

    (e)      The method of treatment, storage, or disposal for each hazardous waste.

    (f)      The certification signed by the owner or operator of the facility or the owner or operator's authorized representative.

    (g)      A brief explanation of why the waste was unmanifested, if known.

    (3)      The owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment or disposal facility on the site of generation shall submit a monthly report to the director or his or her designee, on forms provided by the director, which summarizes all managed hazardous wastes treated or disposed of, including the hazardous waste number of the wastes, quantity, method of treatment or disposal, and dates of treatment or disposal. The report shall be submitted to the director within 10 days after the end of each month.

    (4)         All reports shall be signed and certified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §270.11, which is adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

    (5)     The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §263.20(3) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9612 Groundwater monitoring.

    Rule 612. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste shall comply with the requirements of R 299.9629 and 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F, excluding the provisions of §§264.94(a)(2) and (3), 264.94(b) and (c), 264.100, and 264.101 and except as follows:

    (a)            The director may, in the facility operating license, extend the point of compliance into groundwaters other than the uppermost aquifer.

    (b)         In addition to wells required by the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F, the owner or operator shall install wells at appropriate locations and depths to yield groundwater from any saturated zone other than the uppermost aquifer when such sampling will provide an earlier warning of failure from a hazardous waste management unit. All wells installed to monitor or evaluate groundwater shall be constructed and abandoned in accordance with the well installation and well decommissioning procedures in ASTM standards D5092-90 and D5299-92, or a plan approved by the director.

    (c)       The director may require sampling and analysis for secondary monitoring parameters at frequencies specified in the facility operating license. If the owner or operator determines that there is a statistically significant increase in 1 or more secondary monitoring parameters, then he or she shall do all of the following:

    (i)      Notify the director or his or her designee of the finding immediately.

     

     

    (ii)         Sample for both primary and secondary monitoring parameters, taking not less than 4 replicate measurements on each sample at each well.

    (iii)          Redetermine if a statistically significant increase has occurred in either primary or secondary monitoring parameters and immediately notify the director or his or her designee of the results.

    (d)        The concentration limit of a hazardous constituent established pursuant to the provisions of 40

    C.F.R. 264.94(a) shall not exceed the background level of that constituent in groundwater, unless  a concentration limit which is not less stringent than that allowed pursuant to the provisions of RCRA has been established pursuant to the provisions of part 31 of the act or part 201 of the act.

    (e)        To determine whether background values or concentration limits have been exceeded pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 264.97(h), the owner or operator shall use a statistical test approved by the director in the facility operating license and shall determine if the difference between the mean of the constituent at each well, using all replicates taken, and either of the following is significant:

    (i)      The background value of the constituent as defined in the operating license.

    (ii)      The mean value of 1 year's initial sampling for the well itself where the 1-year period is specified by the director in the facility operating license.

    (f)      The director may require compliance monitoring and corrective action pursuant to the provisions of 40 C.F.R. 264.99, R 299.9629, part 31 of the act, and part 201 of the act to be conducted pursuant to a consent agreement or other legally binding agreement rather than pursuant to an operating license.

    (g)      Nothing in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart F, or this rule shall restrict the director from taking action pursuant to the provisions of section 48 or 51 of part 111 of the act.

    (h)         The owner or operator has been granted a waiver by the director pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9611(3).

     

    R 299.9613 Closure and postclosure.

    Rule 613. (1) The owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility shall comply with the closure and postclosure provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart G, except 40 C.F.R.

    §§264.112(d)(1), 264.115, and 264.120.

    (2)      The owner or operator shall notify the director, in writing, not more less than 60 days before the date on which the owner or operator expects to begin partial or final closure of any or all hazardous waste management units at the treatment, storage, or disposal facility. A copy of the current or updated partial or final closure plan for the hazardous waste management unit or units that are being closed shall accompany the notification.

    (3)     Within 60 days of completion of closure of each hazardous waste management unit at a facility, and within 60 days of the completion of final closure, the owner or operator shall submit, to the director, by registered mail, a certification that the hazardous waste management unit or facility, as applicable, has been closed in accordance with the specifications in the approved closure plan. The certification shall be signed by the owner or operator and by an independent registered professional engineer and shall include all of the following supporting documentation:

    (a)      The results of all sampling and analysis.

    (b)      Sampling and analysis procedures.

    (c)      A map showing the location where samples were obtained.

     

     

    (d)      Any statistical evaluations of sampling data.

    (e)      A summary of waste types and quantities removed from the site and the destination of these wastes.

    (f)      If soil has been excavated, the final depth and elevation of the excavation and a description of the fill material used.

    (4)       Any documentation not listed in subrule (3) of this rule that supports the independent registered professional engineer's certification shall be furnished to the director upon request until the director releases the owner or operator from the financial assurance requirements for closure pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9703.

    (5)     Not later than 60 days after completion of the established postclosure care period for each hazardous waste disposal unit, the owner or operator shall submit, to the director, by registered mail, a certification that the postclosure care period for the hazardous waste disposal unit was performed in accordance with the specifications in the approved postclosure plan. The certification shall be signed by the owner or operator and an independent registered professional engineer. Documentation supporting the independent registered professional engineer's certification shall be furnished to the director upon request until the director releases the owner or operator from the financial requirements for postclosure pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9703.

    (6)     The environmental protection standards established pursuant to the provisions of part 201 of the act shall be used to perform closure and postclosure of a facility under part 111 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than those allowed pursuant to the provisions of RCRA.

    (7)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart G, except 40 C.F.R. §§264.112(d)(1), 264.115, and 264.120, are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the  word "director" shall  replace  the  words  "regional  administrator"  and  the  words  "R 299.9703(8)  and R 299.9710(17)" shall replace the word "40 C.F.R. §264.140(d).

     

    R 299.9615 Tank systems.

    Rule 615. (1) Owners or operators who use tank systems to treat or store hazardous waste shall comply with all of the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart J, except as provided in subrule (4) of this rule.

    (2)     Owners or operators of tank systems that are not in compliance with the containment requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.193(b) to (f) shall do all of the following until either the tank system is brought into compliance with the standards of 40 C.F.R. §264.193(a) or until a variance is obtained as provided by 40 C.F.R. §264.193(h):

    (a)       Ensure that aboveground tank systems that are used for the treatment or storage of liquid hazardous wastes, or hazardous wastes which could generate free liquids during storage, are located in areas which are paved, diked, curbed, or otherwise structurally enclosed so as to be able to contain not less than 100% of the largest tank system within the enclosed area. Where the hazardous wastes that are stored are incompatible with the materials of construction of tank systems within the enclosed area, or where the tank systems are interconnected so that a loss from one tank system may lead to losses in other tank systems, the owner or operator shall insure that all tank systems are structurally enclosed so as to be able to contain not less than 100% of the liquid portion of the material being stored in all tank systems.

    (b)       For underground tank systems that are used for the treatment or storage of liquid hazardous wastes, or hazardous wastes that could generate free liquids, do all of the following:

    (i)      Provide adequate secondary containment and a leachate collection and withdrawal system to contain any release of hazardous wastes or hazardous waste constituents from the tank system.

    (ii)      Conduct a complete inventory of hazardous wastes in the tank system not less than twice a month.

    (iii)      Conduct leachate sampling and analysis at least once a year. If the inventories required pursuant to paragraph (ii) of this subdivision indicate a loss of waste, leachate sampling and analysis shall be performed within 24 hours of the discovery of the loss.

     

     

    (3)      All tank systems which are put into service after July 14, 1989, or which are upgraded pursuant to the provisions of  40 C.F.R.  §264.193  shall  be  assessed  in  accordance  with  the  provisions  of 40 C.F.R. §264.192(a)(3) and provided with the necessary corrosion protection as determined pursuant to the assessment.

    (4)      All tank systems shall be designed, constructed, operated, and maintained in compliance with the requirements of R 29.45101 to R 29.45504 pursuant to the provisions of act 207.

    (5)      Owners or operators shall label tank systems in accordance with the provisions of NFPA standard no. 704.

    The director may waive the interim secondary containment requirements of

    subrule (2) of this rule for wastewater treatment units and elementary neutralization units based upon an assessment of the hydrogeological aspects of the site with respect to the provisions of part 31 of the act, the nature and volume of the waste treated or stored, and the location and nature of the facility.

    (b) For purposes of 40 C.F.R. §§264.191 and 265.191, the date "January 12, 1989" shall replace the date "January 12, 1988."

    (c) For purposes of 40 C.F.R. §§264.193 and 265.193, the date "January 12, 1988" shall replace the date "January 12, 1987."

     

    R 299.9623 Incinerators.

    Rule 623. (1) Owners and operators of facilities that incinerate hazardous waste shall comply with all requirements of this rule, except as subrule (2) of this rule provides otherwise. The following facility owners or operators are considered to incinerate hazardous waste:

    (a)      Owners or operators of hazardous waste incinerators as defined in R 299.9104. Owners or operators who burn hazardous waste in boilers or in industrial furnaces to destroy the wastes.

    (2)      Except as noted in this subrule and subrule (3) of this rule, part 6 of the rules does not apply to owners and operators of new hazardous waste incinerator that become subject to the permit or license requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, or to owners or operators of existing facilities that incinerate hazardous waste if the owner or operator demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE by conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting to the director a notification of compliance under 40 C.F.R. §§63.1207(j) and 63.1210(bd) which documents compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE. Nevertheless, even after this compliance demonstration is made, the operating license conditions that are based on the standards of part 6 of the rules will continue to be in effect until they are removed from the operating license or the operating license is terminated or revoked, unless the operating license expressly provides otherwise. The director may apply this subrule and subrule (3) of this rule, on a case-by-case basis, for collecting information pursuant to R 299.9504(18) and (20) and R 299.9521(3)(b) and (c).

    (3)      The maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, do not supersede any of the following requirements:

    (a)  R 299.9601, R 299.9605 to R 299.9610, R 299.9612, R 299.9613, R 299.9630, R 299.9631, and part

    7 of these rules.

    (b)       The particulate matter standard of 40 C.F.R. §264.343(c), if the owner or operator elects to comply with the alternative to the particulate standard of 40 C.F.R.§§63.1206(b)(14) and 63.1219(e).

     

     

    (c)      The following requirements remain in effect for startup, shutdown, and malfunction events even if a person elects to comply with 40 C.F.R. §270.235(a)(1)(i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from these events:

    (i)          The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.345(a) which require that an incinerator operate pursuant to the operating requirements specified in the operating license.

    (ii)        The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.345(c) which require compliance with the emission standards and operating requirements during startup and shutdown if hazardous waste is in the combustion chamber, except for particular hazardous wastes.

    (4)         Owners and  operators of  facilities  that incinerate hazardous  waste shall  comply with 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart O, except 40 C.F.R. §264.340(a) to (d) and 264.344(a)(2) and (b).

    (5)      The owner or operator of a hazardous waste incinerator shall burn only wastes specified in his or her operating license and only under operating conditions specified for those wastes under this rule, except in approved trial burns or trial operations. Other hazardous wastes may be burned only after operating conditions have been specified in a construction permit or operating license. Operating requirements for new wastes may be based on either trial burn results or alternative data included with the construction permit or operating license application.

    (6)         If the owner or operator of a new hazardous waste incinerator conducts a trial burn before application for an operating license, the construction permit for the hazardous waste incinerator shall establish appropriate conditions for each of the applicable requirements of this part, including, but not limited to, allowable waste feeds and operating conditions necessary to meet the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §264.345 and sufficient to comply with 40 C.F.R. §264.344(c)(1) and (2) for the period before and during the trial burn.

    (7)     The director may require trial operation of an incinerator and the submittal of a trial operations plan containing the information specified in 40 C.F.R. §270.62(b)(2) under the following circumstances:

    (a)      Before the renewal of an incinerator's operating license under part 111 of the act.

    (b)      Before the licensing of an incinerator newly subjected to the license requirements of part 111 of the act and these rules.

    (c)      Before the approval of new waste types through an operating license modification.

    (d)       The director has evidence that an incinerator may be emitting hazardous constituents in quantities which violate part 55 of the act or these rules.

    (8)       The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §270.62(a) to (d) shall apply to facilities incinerating hazardous waste, except as otherwise provided in these rules.

    (9)      An incinerator burning hazardous waste shall be designed, constructed, and maintained so that it will comply with part 55 of the act.

    (10)      The director may, in addition, specify one or more principal organic hazardous constituents from the lists of hazardous waste or hazardous constituents contained in tables 201 to 206 of these rules.

    (11)      The provisions of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE; 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII; 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart O, except 40 C.F.R. §264.340(a) to (d) and §264.344(a)(2) and (b); and 40 C.F.R.

    §§270.62(a) to (d) and 270.235(a)(1)(i), are adopted by reference in R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the references to "§124.10" shall be replaced with "R 299.9511," "270.19" shall be replaced with "R 299.9504," "§270.42" shall be replaced with "R 299.9519," and the word "permit" shall be replaced with "operating license."

     

    R 299.9629 Corrective action.

    Rule 629. (1) Owners or operators of facilities that treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste shall conduct corrective action as necessary to protect the public health, safety, welfare, and the environment pursuant to a corrective action program approved by the director, unless otherwise specified in this rule. The corrective action program shall be conducted as follows:

     

     

    (a)      Owners or operators of facilities that apply for, or have been issued, an operating license pursuant to part 111 of the act shall institute corrective action for all releases of a contaminant from any waste management units at the facility, regardless of when the contaminant may have been placed in or released from the waste management unit.

    (b)        Owners or operators of facilities that are not included in subdivision (a) of this subrule and for which the owner or operator, or both, is or was subject to the interim status requirements defined in RCRA, except for facilities that have received formal written approval of the withdrawal of their EPA part A hazardous waste permit application from the director or the EPA, shall institute corrective action for all releases of hazardous waste from the facility, regardless of when the hazardous waste may have been placed in or released from the facility.

    (2)      Owners or operators shall implement corrective action beyond the facility boundary if the releases referenced in subrule (1) of this rule have or may have migrated, or otherwise have or may have been emitted, beyond the facility boundary, unless the owner or operator demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the director, that, despite the owner's or operator's best efforts, the owner or operator is unable to obtain the necessary permissions to undertake such actions. The owner or operator shall not be relieved of all responsibility to clean up a release that has migrated or been emitted beyond the facility boundary where off-site access is denied. On-site measures to address such releases shall be determined on a case-by-case basis. Assurances of financial responsibility for such corrective action shall be provided.

    (3)     The owners or operators who are required to establish a corrective action program pursuant to part 111 of the act and these rules shall, at a minimum, do the following, as applicable:

    (a)      For facilities that are specified in subdivision (a) of subrule (1) of this rule, the owner or operator, or both, shall take corrective action to ensure compliance with the groundwater protection standards, and, if necessary, other applicable environmental protection standards, established by the director. The director shall specify in a permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order, pursuant to this rule and R 299.9635 and R 299.9636, schedules of compliance for corrective action and assurances of financial responsibility for completing the corrective action and other requirements, including, any of the following:

    (i)       A list of the hazardous wastes and hazardous constituents. The list of hazardous constituents are identified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.93.

    (ii)           The groundwater protection standards which are expressed as concentration limits that are established pursuant to R 299.9612(1)(d) or as concentration limits established pursuant to part 31 or part 201 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

    (iii)       The environmental protection standards which are necessary for the cleanup and protection of soil, surface water, sediments, and ambient air that are established pursuant to part 201 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

    (iv)         The compliance point or points at which the standards apply and at which monitoring shall be conducted, which for groundwater are specified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.95.

    (v)      The compliance period, which for groundwater is specified pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §264.96.

    (vi)          The restoration and mitigation measures that are necessary to mitigate damage to the natural resources of the state, including wildlife, fish, wetlands, or other ecosystems.

    (b)      For facilities that are specified in subdivision (b) of subrule (1) of this rule, the owner or operator, or both, shall take corrective action to ensure compliance with the groundwater protection standards, and, if necessary, other applicable environmental protection standards, established by the director. The director shall specify in a consent order or other order, pursuant to this rule and R 299.9635 and R 299.9636, schedules of compliance for corrective action and assurances of financial responsibility for completing the corrective action and other requirements, including any of the following:

    (i)      A list of the hazardous wastes and hazardous waste constituents.

     

     

    (ii)           The groundwater protection standards which are expressed as concentration limits that are established pursuant to part 31 or part 201 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

    (iii)       The environmental protection standards which are necessary for the cleanup and protection of soil, surface water, sediments, and ambient air that are established pursuant to part 201 of the act if the limits are not less stringent than allowed pursuant to RCRA.

    (iv)         The compliance point or points at which the standards apply and at which monitoring shall be conducted.

    (v)      The compliance period.

    (vi)          The restoration and mitigation measures that are necessary to mitigate damage to the natural resources of the state, including wildlife, fish, wetlands, or other ecosystems.

    (4)       The owner or operator shall implement a corrective action program that prevents contaminants, hazardous wastes, or hazardous waste constituents, as provided for in subrule (1) of this rule, from exceeding their respective protection standards or concentration limits at the compliance point by removing the contaminants, hazardous wastes, or hazardous waste constituents or treating them in place.

    (5)        For facilities that are conducting a groundwater compliance monitoring program at the time a permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order is issued or entered, the owner or operator shall begin groundwater corrective action within a reasonable time period after the groundwater protection standard is exceeded. The director shall specify the time period in the permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order. If a permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order includes a groundwater corrective action program in addition to a compliance groundwater monitoring program, then the operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order shall specify when the corrective action groundwater program will begin and the corrective action groundwater program shall operate in place of the compliance groundwater monitoring program.

    (6)     In conjunction with a groundwater corrective action program, the owner or operator shall establish and implement a groundwater monitoring program to demonstrate the effectiveness of the groundwater corrective action program. The monitoring program may be based on the requirements for a compliance groundwater monitoring program and shall be as effective as that program in determining compliance with the groundwater protection standards specified in the permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order and in determining the success of a corrective action program pursuant to the provisions of subrule (8) of this rule, where appropriate. All wells installed to monitor, evaluate, or remediate groundwater shall be constructed and abandoned in accordance with the well installation and well decommissioning procedures in ASTM standards D5092-90 and D5299-92, or a plan approved by the director.

    (7)      If there is an exceedance of a groundwater surface water interface standard based on acute toxicity and established pursuant to part 201 and part 31 of the act, at any of the groundwater surface water interface compliance monitoring wells required by these rules and approved by the department, then the owner or operator shall immediately do all of the following:

    (a)          Provide the department with written notification of the exceedance within 7 days of obtaining knowledge and confirmation that the exceedance is occurring or within 30 days of the effective date of this rule, whichever is later.

    (b)      Within 60 days of the date on which the notice in subdivision (a) of this subrule is required, do 1 or more of the following, unless an extension of a submittal or implementation deadline is approved by the department. In reviewing extension requests, the department  shall  consider  the progress of any corrective action to date, whether or not site conditions inhibit corrective action implementation, whether or not the extension would adversely impact surface water resources, and the nature and extent of the exceedances.

     

     

    (i)       Implement interim actions to prevent exceedances at the monitoring wells referenced in this subrule and submit to the department a proposal and schedule for completing corrective action to prevent a discharge that exceeds the standard.

    (ii)      Provide the department with written notification of the owner or operator's intent to propose another compliance monitoring point if one has yet not been approved  by the department. The notification shall include a schedule for submission of the proposal for department approval. The department may approve the schedule as submitted or direct reasonable modifications in the schedule. The proposal for another compliance monitoring point shall include all of the following:

    (A)     A demonstration that the proposed compliance monitoring points are more representative of the venting groundwater and allow a more accurate calculation of the discharge rate, in cubic feet per second, of that portion of the venting groundwater plume that exceeds, or is likely to exceed in the future, a groundwater surface water interface standard, than existing compliance monitoring wells.

    (B)      A demonstration that the locations where venting groundwater enters surface water have been comprehensively identified.

    (C)          A demonstration that the proposed compliance monitoring point allows for venting groundwater to be sampled before mixing with surface water.

    (D)         A demonstration that the proposed compliance monitoring point allows for reliable, representative monitoring of groundwater quality.

    (E)       Identification and documentation of the chemical, physical, or biological processes that result in the reduction of hazardous constituents between the original compliance monitoring wells required by these rules and the proposed compliance monitoring points.

    (F)     Consideration of changes in groundwater flow conditions so that samples collected from the proposed compliance monitoring point are representative of groundwater flowing to the surface water. The proposed compliance monitoring points may be located in a floodplain.

    (G)      Identification of any sentinel monitoring points that will be used in conjunction with the proposed compliance monitoring point to assure that any potential exceedance of an applicable water quality standard can be identified with sufficient notice to allow additional corrective action to be implemented that will prevent the exceedance. Sentinel monitoring points shall include, at a minimum, the original compliance monitoring wells required by these rules.

    (iii)      Provide the department with written notification of the owner or operator's intent to propose a site-specific standard under MCL 324.20120a(2). The notification shall include a schedule for submission of the proposal for department approval. The department may approve the schedule as submitted or direct reasonable modifications in the schedule.

    (c)         If the owner or operator does not implement an effective corrective action; submit the notices, proposals,  and schedules required in  subdivision (b) of this subrule; or comply with the schedules established under subdivision (b) of this subrule; and no extension was approved by the department, the owner or operator shall continue implementation of interim actions to prevent the exceedance until another compliance monitoring point or site-specific standard is approved by the department, or if the proposal is not approved by the department, until a different corrective action is implemented to protect the surface water. If another compliance monitoring point was approved by the department before detection of the exceedance in that compliance monitoring point, corrective action shall continue as long as there is a reasonable potential for an exceedance to occur, or until a different corrective action is implemented to protect the surface water. The owner or operator shall document the interim actions taken to prevent the exceedance and their effectiveness during the time that the department is reviewing a proposal. If the proposal required under paragraph (ii) of subdivision (b) of this subrule does not adequately document the interim actions required to satisfy this rule, it shall be considered incomplete and the department shall not make a decision on the proposal.

     

     

    (8)       In addition to the other requirements of this rule, the owner or operator shall conduct a corrective action program to remove or treat in place any contaminants, hazardous wastes, and hazardous waste constituents, as provided for in subrule (1) of this rule, that exceed the groundwater protection standards or other environmental protection standards that are specified by the director as follows:

    (a)       Between the compliance points that are established pursuant to subrule (3)(a)(iv) and (b)(iv) of this rule and the downgradient property boundary and beyond the facility boundary in accordance with subrule (2) of this rule.

    (b)      Corrective action measures that are undertaken pursuant to this rule shall be initiated and completed within a reasonable period of time considering the extent of contamination.

    (c)       Corrective action measures that are pursuant to this rule may be terminated once the environmental protection standards specified by the director in the facility permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order have been achieved for the required period.

    (9)       The owner or operator shall continue corrective action measures during the compliance period to the extent necessary to ensure that the environmental protection standards are not exceeded. If the owner or operator is conducting corrective action at the end of the compliance period,  then corrective action shall continue for as long as necessary to achieve compliance with the environmental protection standards. The owner or operator may terminate corrective action measures taken beyond the period equal to the active life of the waste management area, including the closure period, if the owner or operator can demonstrate that the environmental protection standards have been achieved for the required period.

    (10)     The owner or operator shall report, in writing, to the director, on the effectiveness of the corrective action program pursuant to the schedule specified in the permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order, but not less than semiannually.

    (11)         If an owner or operator determines that the corrective action program does not satisfy the requirements of these rules, he or she shall, pursuant to the permit, operating license, postclosure operating license, consent order, or other order, submit an application for a permit or license modification or request a modification or termination of appropriate sections of any consent order or other order.

    (12)      The requirements of this rule do not apply to remediation waste management sites unless they are part of a facility subject to the permitting or licensing requirements under part 111 of the act and these rules because the facility is also treating, storing, or disposing of hazardous wastes that are not remediation wastes.

     

    R 299.9640  Options for  incinerators, cement  kilns, and lightweight aggregate kilns to minimize emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events.

    Rule 640. (1) Owners and operators of permitted or licensed incinerators, cement kilns, or lightweight aggregate kilns, solid fuel boilers, liquid fuel boilers, or hydrochloric acid production furnaces may request that the director address construction permit or operating license conditions that minimize emissions from  startup,  shutdown,  and  malfunction  events  under  any  of  the  options  in 40 C.F.R. §270.235(a) when requesting removal of construction permit or operating license conditions that are no longer applicable according to R 299.9623(2) or R 299.9808(4).

    (2)      Owners and operators of interim status incinerators, cement kilns, or lightweight aggregate kilns, solid fuel boilers, liquid fuel boilers, or hydrochloric acid production furnaces operating under parts 6 and 8 of these rules may control emissions of toxic compounds during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events under either of the following options after conducting a comprehensive performance test and submitting to the director a notification of compliance documenting compliance with 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE:

     

     

    (a)          The owner or operator continues to comply with the emission standards and operating requirements of parts 6 and 8 of these rules relevant to control of emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events. Those  standards and requirements  only apply during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events.

    (b)       The owner or operator is exempt from the standards of parts 6 and 8 of these rules relevant to control of emissions of toxic compounds during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events upon submission of written notification and documentation to the director that the startup, shutdown, and malfunction plan required pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §63.1206(c)(2) has been approved by the department pursuant to 40 C.F.R. §63.1206(c)(2)(ii).

    (3)     When an owner or operator of an interim status incinerator, cement kiln, or lightweight kiln operating under parts 6 and 8 of these rules submits an operating license application to the director, the owner or operator may request that the director control emissions from startup, shutdown, and malfunction events under subrule (1) of this rule.

    (4)      Hazardous waste incinerators, cement kilns, lightweight aggregate kilns, solid fuel boilers, liquid fuel boilers, or hydrochloric acid production furnaces that become subject to the permitting or licensing requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, shall control emissions of toxic compounds during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events in accordance with 40 C.F.R. §270.235(c).

    (45) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §270.235(a) and (c) are adopted by reference in

    R 299.11003. For the purposes of this adoption, the word "permit" shall be replaced with "operating license," and the references to "264.340(b)" shall be replaced with "R 299.9623(2)," "266.100(b)" replaced with "R 299.9808(4)," and "270.41(a)" and "270.42" replaced with "R 299.9519."

     

    R 299.9705 Surety bond guaranteeing performance of closure and/or postclosure care.

    Rule 705. (1) An owner or operator may satisfy the financial assurance requirements of R 299.9703 by obtaining a surety bond which is executed on a form approved by the director and which conforms to the requirements of this rule. The surety company issuing the bond shall, at a minimum, satisfy both of the following requirements:

    (a)     The surety company shall be among those listed as acceptable sureties on federal bonds in circular 570 of the United States department of the treasury.

    (b)      The surety company shall be independent, separate, and unrelated to the owner or operator.

    (2)     The bond shall guarantee that the owner or operator will do either of the following:

    (a)        Perform final closure or postclosure care in accordance with the closure or postclosure plan and other requirements of the operating license for the facility when required to do so.

    (b)          Within 90 days after receipt by both the owner or operator and the director of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety, provide alternate financial assurance as specified in this part and obtain the director's written approval of the assurance provided.

    (3)        Under the terms of the bond, the surety shall become liable on the bond obligation under the following circumstances:

    (a)      When the owner or operator fails to perform as guaranteed by the bond.

    (b)       Following issuance of a notice of violation or other order by the director alleging that the owner or operator has failed to perform final closure or postclosure care, or both, in accordance with the closure and postclosure plans and other operating license requirements when required to do so and after providing the owner or operator 7 days notice and an opportunity for a hearing.

    (4)     The penal sum of the bond shall be in an amount at least equal to the current closure and postclosure cost estimates.

    (5)     When the current closure or postclosure cost estimate, or both, increases to an amount more than the penal sum, the owner or operator, within 60 days after the increase, shall either cause the penal sum to be increased to an amount at least equal to the current closure or postclosure cost estimate, or both, and

     

     

    submit evidence of such increase to the director or obtain other financial assurance as specified in this part. When the current closure or postclosure cost estimate decreases, the penal sum may be reduced to the amount of the current closure or postclosure cost estimate following written approval by the director.

    (6)     Under the terms of the bond, the surety may cancel the bond by sending notice of cancellation, by certified mail, to the owner or operator and to the director. Cancellation shall not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the director, as evidenced by the return receipts.

    (7)      The owner or operator may cancel the bond if the director has given prior written consent. The director shall provide such written consent when either of the following occurs:

    (a)      An owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this part.

    (b)       The director releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with R 299.9703(5).

    (8)     The surety shall not be liable for deficiencies in the performance of closure or postclosure care, or both, by the owner or operator after the director releases the owner or operator from the requirements of this part in accordance with R 299.9703(5).

    (9)      Upon receipt of a notice of cancellation of the bond from the surety, the owner or operator shall obtain alternate financial assurance approved by the director within 60 days. If the owner or operator fails to so provide, the director may issue a notice of violation or other order rendering the surety liable on the bond obligation.

     

    R 299.9710 Liability requirements for treatment, storage, and disposal facilities.

    Rule 710. (1) An owner or operator of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility, or a group of such facilities, shall demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by sudden and accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator shall have and maintain liability coverage for sudden and accidental occurrences in an amount not less than $1,000,000.00 per occurrence with an annual aggregate of not less than $2,000,000.00, exclusive of legal defense costs.

    (2)        An owner or operator of a surface impoundment, landfill, land treatment facility, or disposal miscellaneous unit which is used to manage hazardous waste, or a group of such facilities, shall demonstrate financial responsibility for bodily injury and property damage to third parties caused by nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from operations of the facility or group of facilities. The owner or operator shall have and maintain liability coverage for nonsudden accidental occurrences in an amount  not  less  than  $3,000,000.00  per  occurrence  with  an  annual  aggregate  of  not  less  than

    $6,000,000.00, exclusive of legal defense costs.

    (3)       An owner or operator shall demonstrate the existence of the required liability coverage through any of the following:

    (a)      Insurance as specified in subrule (6) of this rule.

    (b)      The financial test specified in subrule (7) of this rule.

    (c)      The financial test specified in subrule (8) of this rule.

    (d)      The corporate guarantee specified in subrule (9) of rule.

    (e)      The letter of credit specified in subrule (10) of this rule.

    (f)      The trust fund specified in subrule (11) of this rule.

    (4)      An owner or operator may demonstrate the existence of the required liability coverage through a combination of the financial mechanisms specified in subrule (3) of this rule, except that any combination shall not include more than 1 of the financial tests specified and shall not include both a financial test and corporate guarantee. The amounts of coverage shall total at least the minimum amounts required by this rule.

     

     

    (5)      If more than 1 financial mechanism is used to demonstrate the existence of the required liability coverage, then the owner or operator shall specify at least 1 financial mechanism as primary coverage and shall specify the other financial mechanisms as excess coverage.

    (6)      An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by obtaining an insurance policy as follows:

    (a)       Each insurance policy shall be issued by an insurer which, at a minimum, is licensed to transact the business of insurance, or which is eligible to provide insurance as an excess or surplus lines insurer, in the state of Michigan.

    (b)        Each insurance policy shall be amended by attaching an endorsement on a form provided by the director. The  owner  or operator  shall  submit,  to the director, a signed  duplicate original of the endorsement, and, if requested by the director, a signed duplicate of the insurance policy.

    (c)        Each policy that is obtained to meet the requirements of this rule shall provide that cancellation, termination, or a material change to the policy that affects the coverages required by this rule shall not occur unless and until not less than 30 days' written notice of the cancellation, termination, or material change is first provided to the director. The notice shall be given no matter which party initiates the cancellation, termination, or material change and whether or not nonpayment of premium is involved.

    (d)      If the underlying policies required by subrules (1) and (2) of this rule do not provide sufficient limits of liability, the policy shall be amended by attaching an excess insurance endorsement on a form approved by the director.

    (7)       An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by complying with the financial test requirements specified in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.147(f). To demonstrate that he or she passes this test, the owner or operator shall submit all of the information required in 40 C.F.R.

    §264.147(f)(3)   to   the   director.    The   words   "regional   administrator"   in   the   provisions   of 40 C.F.R. §264.151(g) shall be replaced with the word "director."

    (8)       An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by complying with the financial test requirements specified in the provisions of R 299.9709 and both of the following provisions:

    (a)      The financial test criteria of R 299.9709 shall be modified as follows:

    (i)       In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(a)(ii), net working capital and tangible net worth shall each be not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

    (ii)     In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(a)(iv), assets in the United States shall be not less than 90% of the owner's or operator's total assets or not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

    (iii)       In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(b)(ii), tangible net worth shall be not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

    (iv)       In the provisions of R 299.9709(1)(b)(iv), assets in the United States shall be not less than 90% of the owner's or operator's total assets or not less than 6 times the sum of the current closure and postclosure cost estimates, any other obligations covered by a financial test, and the amount of annual aggregate liability coverage.

    (b)       To demonstrate that the owner or operator passes the financial test requirements of this subrule, the owner or operator shall submit all of the information required by the provisions of R 299.9709(3) to the director.

    (c)      If the owner or operator no longer meets the requirements of this subrule, then he or she shall obtain alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule.  Evidence of alternate liability coverage shall be

     

     

    submitted to the director within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year for which the year-end financial data show that the owner or operator no longer meets the financial test requirements of this subrule.

    (9)       An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by obtaining a written guarantee for liability coverage, hereafter referred to as "corporate guarantee," as follows:

    (a)      The guarantor shall be the parent corporation of the owner or operator. The guarantor shall meet the requirements for owners or operators specified in subrule (7) or (8) of this rule and shall comply with the terms of the corporate guarantee.

    (b)      The corporate guarantee shall provide for all of the following:

    (i)       If the owner or operator fails to satisfy a judgment based on a determination of liability for bodily injury or property damage to third parties caused by sudden or nonsudden, or both, accidental occurrences arising from the operation of facilities covered by the corporate guarantee, or fails to pay an amount agreed to in settlement of claims arising from, or alleged to have arisen from, such injury or damage, then the guarantor will satisfy the judgment or pay the settlement amount up to the limits of coverage.

    (ii)       The guarantor shall make payment of third-party liability awards and settlements upon presentation of a certification of a valid claim or a valid final court order that establishes a judgment against the owner or operator for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the facilities covered by the corporate guarantee.

    (iii)       The liability coverage shall not apply to the exclusions specified in the provisions of subrule (12) of this rule.

    (iv)        The corporate guarantee shall remain in force unless the guarantor sends a notice of cancellation, by certified mail, to the owner or operator and to the director. Cancellation shall not occur, however, during the 120 days beginning on the date of receipt of the notice of cancellation by both the owner or operator and the director, as evidenced by the return receipts.

    (v)         The corporate guarantee shall not be terminated unless the owner or operator obtains, and the director approves, alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule.

    (vi)        The guarantor shall obtain alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule in the name of the owner or operator, unless the owner or operator has done so, within 30 days after being notified by the director that the guarantor no longer meets the financial test criteria or that the guarantor is disallowed from continuing as guarantor, and within 120 days after the end of any fiscal year before termination of the guarantee in which the guarantor fails to meet the financial test criteria.

    (c)      The wording of the corporate guarantee shall be identical to the wording specified by the director.

    (d)      The corporate guarantee shall accompany the items sent to the director as specified in subrule (7) or

    (8) of this rule.

    (e)        If a corporation is incorporated outside of Michigan, then a guarantee may be used to satisfy the requirements of this rule only if the non-Michigan corporation has identified a registered agent for service of process in Michigan.

    (f)      The director shall agree to termination of the guarantee if either of the following occurs:

    (i)      The owner or operator or guarantor substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this rule.

    (ii)       The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

    (10)     An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by obtaining an irrevocable letter of credit for liability coverage as follows:

    (a)       The issuing institution shall be a bank or financial institution which has the authority to issue letters of credit and which has its letter of credit operations regulated and examined by a federal or state agency.

    (b)      The letter of credit shall provide for both of the following:

     

     

    (i)        The financial institution shall deposit amounts designated by the trustee, up to the amount of the letter of credit, into a standby trust fund upon presentation of a sight draft.

    (ii)        The letter of credit shall be irrevocable and issued for a period of at least 1 year. The expiration date shall be automatically extended for a period of at least 1 year unless, not less than 120 days before the current expiration date, the issuing institution notifies both the owner or operator and the director, by certified mail, of a decision not to extend the expiration date. The 120 days shall begin on the date when both the owner or operator and the director receive the notice, as evidenced by the return receipts.

    (c)      The wording of the letter of credit shall be identical to the wording specified by the director.

    (d)      The director shall agree to termination of the letter of credit when either of the following occurs:

    (i)      The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this rule.

    (ii)       The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

    (e)         An owner or operator who uses a letter of credit to satisfy the requirements of this rule shall establish a standby trust fund in accordance with both of the following provisions:

    (i)      The trustee shall be a bank or other financial institution which has the authority to act as trustee and which has its trust operations regulated and examined by a state or federal agency.

    (ii)      The trust fund shall provide for all of the following:

    (A)     The trustee shall satisfy third-party liability claims by drawing on the letter of credit and by making payments from the fund upon presentation of a certification of a valid claim or a valid final court order that establishes a judgment against the owner or operator for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the facilities covered by the trust fund.

    (B)     The liability coverage shall not apply to the exclusions specified in the provisions of subrule (12) of this rule.

    (C)     The trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated pursuant to the written agreement of the owner or operator, the trustee, and the director or until terminated by the trustee and the director if the owner or operator ceases to exist.

    (D)    The wording of the trust agreement shall be identical to the wording specified by the director.

    (f)      The director shall agree to termination of the standby trust if either of the following occurs:

    (i)      The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this rule.

    (ii)       The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

    (g)       The owner or operator shall submit a copy of the letter of credit and a signed duplicate original of the standby trust agreement to the director.

    (h)       If the owner or operator does not establish alternate liability coverage as specified in this rule and obtain written approval of the alternate coverage from the director within 90 days after receipt, by both the owner or operator and the director, of a notice from the issuing institution that it has decided not to extend the letter of credit beyond the current expiration date, then the director shall notify the trustee and the trustee shall draw on the letter of credit and deposit the proceeds of the letter of credit into the standby trust fund.

    (11)      An owner or operator may satisfy the liability requirements of this rule by obtaining a trust fund for liability coverage as specified in the following provisions and submitting a signed duplicate original of the trust agreement to the director:

    (a)       The trustee shall be a bank or other financial institution which has the authority to act as trustee and which has its trust operations regulated and examined by a state or federal agency.

    (b)       The trust fund shall be funded for the full amount of liability coverage to be provided by the trust fund. After the trust fund is established, if the trust fund amount is reduced below the full amount of liability coverage to be provided by the trust fund, then the owner or operator shall make payment to the

     

     

    trustee to cause the value of the trust fund to at least equal the full amount of liability coverage to be provided by the trust fund. The payments shall be made before the anniversary date of the establishment of the fund.

    (c)      The trust fund shall provide for all of the following:

    (i)      The trustee shall make payment of third-party liability awards and settlements, up to the value of the fund, upon presentation of a certification of a valid claim or a valid final court order that establishes a judgment against the owner or operator for bodily injury or property damage caused by sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrences arising from the operation of the facilities covered by the trust fund.

    (ii)      The liability coverage shall not apply to the exclusions specified in the provisions of subrule (12) of this rule.

    (iii)       The trust shall be irrevocable and shall continue until terminated pursuant to the written agreement of the owner or operator, the trustee, and the director or until terminated by the trustee and the director if the owner or operator ceases to exist.

    (d)      The wording of the trust agreement shall be identical to the wording specified by the director.

    (e)      The director shall agree to termination of the trust if either of the following occurs:

    (i)      The owner or operator substitutes alternate financial assurance as specified in this rule.

    (ii)       The director releases the owner or operator from the liability requirements in accordance with the provisions of subrule (16) of this rule.

    (12)         The liability coverages provided by the corporate guarantee, letter of credit, and trust fund pursuant to the provisions of this rule shall not apply to any of the following categories of damages or obligations:

    (a)       Bodily injury or property damage for which the owner or operator is obligated to pay damages by reason of the assumption of liability in a contract or agreement. This exclusion does not apply to liability for damages which the owner or operator would be obligated to pay in the absence of the contract or agreement.

    (b)       Any obligation of the owner or operator pursuant to a worker's compensation, disability benefits, or unemployment compensation law or similar law.

    (c)           Bodily injury to an employee of the owner or operator arising from, and in the course of, employment by the owner or operator, or bodily injury to the spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of that employee as a consequence of, or arising from, and in the course of, employment by the owner or operator. This exclusion applies whether the owner or operator may be liable as an employer or in any other capacity and applies to any obligation to share damages with or repay another person who must pay damages because of injury to the employee or the spouse, child, parent, brother, or sister of the employee.

    (d)      Bodily injury or property damage arising out of the ownership, maintenance, use, or entrustment to others of any aircraft, motor vehicle, or watercraft.

    (e)      Property damage to any of the following:

    (i)      Any property that is owned, rented, or occupied by the owner or operator.

    (ii)       Premises that are sold, given away, or abandoned by the owner or operator if the property damage arises out of any part of the premises.

    (iii)      Property that is loaned to the owner or operator.

    (iv)    Personal property in the care, custody, or control of the owner or operator.

    (v)       The part of real property on which the owner, operator, or any contractor or subcontractor who is working directly or indirectly on behalf of the owner or operator are performing operations, if the property damage arises out of these operations.

    (13)      An owner or operator shall notify the director, in writing, within 30 days, if any of the following conditions occur:

     

     

    (a)          A claim results in a reduction in the amount of financial responsibility for liability coverage provided by a financial mechanism authorized in subrule (3) of this rule.

    (b)          A certification of valid claim for bodily injury or property damages caused by a sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility is entered between the owner or operator and a third-party claimant for liability coverage pursuant to the provisions of this rule.

    (c)        A final court order that establishes a judgment for bodily injury or property damage caused by a sudden or nonsudden accidental occurrence arising from the operation of a hazardous waste treatment, storage, or disposal facility is issued against the owner or operator or a financial mechanism for liability coverage pursuant to the provisions of this rule.

    (14)     An owner or operator shall continuously provide liability coverage for a facility as required by this rule until certifications of closure of the facility as specified in the provisions of R 299.9613(3) are received by the director and the director notifies the owner or operator that the owner or operator is no longer required to maintain financial assurance for closure pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9703(5).

    (15)      The director may adjust the levels of financial responsibility required by this rule for the reasons specified in the provisions of 40 C.F.R. §264.147(c) and (d). Any adjustment to the level or type of coverage for a facility that has an operating license shall be treated as an operating license modification pursuant to the provisions of R 299.9519.

    (16)        Within 60 days after receiving certifications from the owner or operator and an independent registered professional engineer that final closure has been completed in accordance with the approved closure plan, the director shall notify the owner or operator, in writing, that the owner or operator is no longer required by this rule to maintain liability coverage for that facility, unless the director has reason to believe that closure has not been in accordance with the approved closure plan.

    (17)        If all other hazardous waste management units at the facility which are subject to a liability coverage requirement under this rule are closed, or if the closure process under part 6 of these rules has been initiated for all other hazardous waste management units that are subject to a liability coverage requirement, then the director may replace all or part of that liability coverage requirement for a hazardous waste management unit with alternative requirements under R 299.9713 if the director does all of the following:

    (a)          Prescribes alternative requirements for the hazardous waste management unit under 40 C.F.R.

    §§264.90(f) or 264.110(dc).

    (b)        Determines that it is not necessary to apply the requirements of this rule because the alternative financial assurance requirements will protect human health and the environment.

    (c)      Specifies the alternative requirements in an operating license or enforceable document.

    (18) The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §§264.90(f), 264.110(d), 264.147(c), (d), and (f) and 264.151(g) are adopted by reference in R 299.11003.

     

    R 299.9808 Management of hazardous waste burned in boilers and industrial furnaces.

    Rule 808. (1) The requirements of this rule apply to hazardous waste that is burned or processed in a boiler or industrial furnace irrespective of the purpose of the burning or processing, except as noted in subrules (2) to (4) of this rule. For the purposes of this rule, the term "burn" means burning hazardous waste for energy recovery or destruction or processing hazardous waste for materials recovery or as an ingredient.

    (2)     The following hazardous wastes and facilities are not subject to this rule:

    (a)         Used oil burned for energy recovery that is also a hazardous waste solely because it exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste identified in R 299.9212. The used oil is subject to regulation pursuant to R 299.9809 to R 299.9816.

     

     

    (b)        Gas recovered from hazardous waste or solid waste landfills when the gas is burned for energy recovery.

    (c)       Hazardous wastes that are exempt from regulation pursuant to R 299.9204 and R 299.9206(3)(c) to (f), and hazardous wastes that are subject to the special requirements for conditionally exempt small quantity generators pursuant to R 299.9205.

    (d)      Coke ovens, if the only hazardous waste burned in an oven is K087.

    (3)     The following owners or operators are not subject to regulation under this rule, except as noted:

    (a)         An owner or operator of a smelting, melting, and refining furnace, including pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry furnaces, that processes hazardous waste solely for metal recovery is exempt from regulation under this rule, except for the requirements of subrules (6) and (8) of this rule, if the owner or operator is in compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.100(d)(1) to (3). The exemption does not apply to cement kilns, aggregate kilns, or halogen acid furnaces that process hazardous waste solely for metals recovery.

    (b)         An owner or operator of a smelting, melting, and refining furnace, including pyrometallurgical devices such as cupolas, sintering machines, roasters, and foundry furnaces, that processes hazardous waste for recovery of economically significant amounts of the precious metals gold, silver, platinum, palladium, iridium, osmium, rhodium, or ruthenium, or any combination of the metals, is exempt from regulation under this rule, except for the requirements of subrule (8) of this rule, if the owner or operator is in compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.100(g)(1) to (3).

    (c)      An owner or operator of a facility that burns, in an on-site boiler or industrial furnace that is exempt from regulation pursuant to the small quantity provisions of 40 C.F.R. §266.108, hazardous waste that the facility has generated is exempt from regulation under parts 5 to 7 of these rules for storage units that store mixtures of hazardous waste and the primary fuel to the boiler or industrial furnace in tanks that feed the fuel mixture directly to the burner. The storage of hazardous waste before mixing it with the primary fuel is subject to subrule (6) of this rule.

    (d)         An owner or operator of a facility that burns hazardous waste in an on-site boiler or industrial furnace, if all of the small quantity exemption criteria outlined in 40 C.F.R. §266.108 are met.

    (4)     Except as noted in this subrule, part 8 of these rules does not apply to owners and operators of a new cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, solid fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace that becomes subject to the permit or license requirements of these rules after October 12, 2005, or to owners or operators of an existing cement kiln, lightweight aggregate kiln, soild fuel boiler, liquid fuel boiler, or hydrochloric acid production furnace if the owner or operator affected source demonstrates compliance with the air emission standards and limitations in maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE by conducting a comprehensive performance  test  and  submitting  to  the  director  a  notification  of  compliance  under  40 C.F.R.

    §§63.1207(j) and 63.1210(bd) which documents compliance with the requirements of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE. Nevertheless, after this compliance demonstration is made, the operating license conditions that are based on the standards of part 8 of these rules shall continue to be in effect until they are removed from the operating license or the operating license is terminated or revoked, unless the operating license expressly provides otherwise. The director may apply this subrule and subrule (5) of this rule, on a case-by-case basis, for collecting information pursuant to R 299.9504(18) and (20) and R 299.9521(3)(b) and (c).

    (5)      The maximum achievable control technology standards of 40 C.F.R. part 63, subpart EEE, do not supersede any of the following requirements:

    (a) of R 299.9601, R 299.9605 to R 299.9610, R 299.9612, R 299.9613, R 299.9630, R 299.9631, R

    299.9808(78) and part 7 of these rules and 40 C.F.R. part 265, subparts A to D, F, G, BB, and CC, and

    §§266.102(e)(11), 266.103(l), 266.111, 266.112, except 266.112(a) and (c), as applicable.

     

     

    (b)     The particulate matter standard of 40 C.F.R. §266.105 if the owner or operator elects to comply with the alternative to the particulate matter standard under 40 C.F.R. §§63.1216(e) and 63.1217(e).

    (c)     The following requirements remain in effect for startup, shutdown, and malfunction events even if a person elects to comply with 40 C.F.R. §270.35(a)(1)(i) to minimize emissions of toxic compounds from these startup, shutdown, and malfunction events, or for source areas if a person elects to comply with 40

    C.F.R. §§266.105 to 266.107 and the associated requirements for particulate matter, hydrogen chloride and chlorine gas, and non-mercury metals:

    (ii)       The requirements of and 40 C.F.R. §266.102(e)(2)(iii) which require requiring compliance with the emission standards and operating requirements during startup and shutdown if hazardous waste is in the combustion chamber, except for particular hazardous wastes, continue to apply. The provisions of 40 C.F.R. §266.102(e)(1) and (2)(iii) apply only during startup, shutdown, and malfunction events.

    (d)    The following requirements remain in effect for owners or operators of a boiler or hydrochloric acid production furnace that is an area source under 40 C.F.R. §63.2 if the owner or operator does not elect to comply with the emission standards under 40 C.F.R. §§63.1216, 63.1217, and 63.1218 for particulate matter, semivolatile and low volatile metals, and total chlorine:

    (i)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.105.

    (ii)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.106.

    (iii)      The requirements of 40 C.F.R. §266.107.

    (56) A generator and a transporter of hazardous waste that is burned in a boiler or industrial furnace shall comply with parts 3 and 4 of these rules, respectively.

    (67) An owner or operator of a facility that stores hazardous waste that is burned in a boiler or industrial furnace shall comply with the applicable requirements of parts 5 to 7 of these rules. The requirements of parts 5 to 7 of these rules shall apply to the storage by the burner and to storage facilities operated by intermediaries, including processors, blenders, distributors, between the generator and the burner.

    (78) An owner or operator of a boiler or an industrial furnace that burns hazardous waste shall comply with the applicable requirements of parts 5 to 7 of these rules and 40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H and appendices I to XIII; except §§266.100(a) and (b), 266.101, 266.102(a), and 266.112(a) and (c); and

    §270.66.

    (89) A residue derived from the burning or processing of hazardous waste in a boiler or industrial furnace is not excluded from the definition of hazardous waste under R 299.9204(2)(d), (h), and (j), unless the device and the owner or operator are in compliance with all of the following requirements:

    (a)      The device meets the following criteria:

    (i)      If the device is a boiler, it shall burn not less than 50% coal on a total heat input or mass input basis, whichever results in the greater mass feed rate of coal.

    (ii)      If the device is an industrial furnace subject to R 299.9204(2)(h), it shall process not less than 50%, by weight, normal, nonhazardous raw materials.

    (iii)         If the device is a cement kiln, it shall process not less than 50%, by weight, normal cement production raw materials.

    (b)        The owner or operator demonstrates, in writing, to the director's satisfaction, that the hazardous waste does not significantly affect the residue by demonstrating conformance with the criteria outlined in 40 C.F.R. §266.112(b)(1) and (2).

    (c)     Records sufficient to document compliance with this subrule shall be retained until closure of the boiler or industrial furnace unit. At a minimum, the following information shall be included in the records, as applicable:

     

     

    (i)        The levels of constituents in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII, that are present in waste-derived residues.

    (ii)        If the waste-derived residue is compared with normal residue under this subrule, then all of the following information shall be documented in the records:

    (A)    The levels of constituents in 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix VIII, that are present in normal residues.

    (B)     Data and information, including analyses of samples as necessary, that were obtained to determine if changes in raw materials or fuels would reduce the concentration of toxic constituents of concern in the normal residue.

    (910)  The provisions of 40 C.F.R. parts 265, subparts A to D, F, G, BB, and CC, 266, subpart H and appendices  I  to  XIII;  except  §§266.100(a)  and  (b),  266.101,  266.102(a),  and  266.112(a)  and  (c);

    §270.66,  and  §270.235(a)(1)(i)  are  adopted  by  reference  in  R 299.11003.  For  the  purposes  of 40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H and §270.66, the word "director" shall replace the words "regional administrator."

     

    R 299.11001 Publications; adoption by reference.

    Rule 1001. (1) The following ASTM standards are adopted by reference in these rules: (a) D 93-79 ($35).

    (b)  D 93-80 ($35).

    (c) D 147-70 ($30).

    (d)  D 168-88 ($25).

    (fh) D 1557-91 ($30).

    (ik) D 2216 ($25).

    (km) D 2382-83 ($30).

    (ln) D 2434-68 ($30).

    (mo) D 2487-69 (reapproved 1979) ($35). (np) D 2879-92 ($30).

    (oq) D 2922-78 ($30).

    (pr) D 3278-78 ($30).

    (qs)  D 4318-94 ($35).

    (su)  D 5092-90 ($25).

    (tv) D 5299-92 ($35). (w) D 6450-99 ($30). (ux) E 168-88 ($35).

    (vy) E 169-87 ($30).

    (wz) E 260-85 ($35).

    (xaa) E 926-88, Test Method C ($30).

    (2)      The standards listed in subrule (1) of this rule are available from the American Society for Testing and Materials, Sales Services, 100 Barr Harbor Drive, P.O. Box C700, West Conshoshocken, Pennsylvania 19428-2959, for the costs identified in subrule (1). The costs identified in subrule (1) reflect the costs at the time these rules were promulgated. The standards adopted in subrule (1) of this rule are available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department; and the Office

     

     

    of the Federal Register, 800 North Capital Street Library, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW. (3403T), Washington, DC 204608, libraryhq@epa.gov; or the National                            Archives                and               Records                Administration,                 202-741-6030, http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

    (3)        The publication entitled "APTI Course 415: Control of Gaseous Emissions," EPA Publication EPA-450/2-81-005, PB91101709, December 1981, is adopted by reference in these rules. The publication is available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield,  VA  22161,  703-605-6000  or  800-553-6847,  or  the  Superintendent  of  Documents,

    U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, 202-512-1800, for $7081, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The publication adopted in this subrule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department; the Library, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, (3403T), Washington, DC 20460, libraryhq@epa.gov; or the National Archives                        and                      Records                       Administration,                        202-741-6030, http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

    The publication entitled "U.S. EPA, Screening Procedures for Estimating the Air Quality Impact of Stationary Sources, Revised," October 1992, EPA Publication No. EPA-454/R-92-019, PB93219095, is adopted by reference in these rules. The publication is available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161, 703-605-0000 or 800-553-6847, or the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, Research Triangle Park, North Carolina, 919-541-7645, for

    $349.50, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The publication adopted in this subrule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

    (5)       The publication entitled "API Publication 2517, Third Edition, Evaporative Loss From External Floating Roof Tanks," February 1989, is adopted by reference in these rules. The publication is available from the American Petroleum Institute, 1220 L Street, NW, Washington, DC, 20005, for

    $8100, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The publication adopted in this subrule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

    (6)     The publication entitled "Method 1664, Revision A, n-Hexane Extractable Material (HEM; Oil and Grease) and Silica Gel Treated n-Hexane Extractable Material (SGT-HEM; Non-Polar Material) by Extraction and Gravimetry," PB99-121949, is adopted by reference in these rules. The publication is available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, VA 22161, 703-605-0000 or 800-553-6847, or the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, 202-512-1800, for $2533.50, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The publication adopted in this subrule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department; the Library, U.S. Environmental Protection Agency, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, (3403T), Washington, DC 20460, libraryhq@epa.gov; or the National Archives                        and                      Records                       Administration,                        202-741-6030, http://www.archives.gov/federal_register/code_of_federal_regulations/ibr_locations.html.

    (7)        The publications entitled "OECD Green List of Wastes" (revised May 1994), "Amber List of Wastes" (revised May 1993), and "Red List of Wastes" (revised May 1993) as set fourth in Appendix 3, Appendix 4, and Appendix 5, respectively, to the OECD Council Decision C(92)39/FINAL (Concerning the Control of Transfontier Movements of Wastes Destined for Recovery Operations) are adopted by reference in these rules. The publications are available for purchase from the Organisation  for Economic Co-operation and Development, Environment Directorate, 2 rue Andre Pascal, 75775 Paris Cedex 16, France, at cost. The publications are available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

     

    R 299.11002 NFPA standard; adoption by reference.

     

     

    Rule 1002. (1)  The NFPA standards no. 30 (1996) and 704 (2001) is are adopted by reference in these rules.

    (2) The standard listed in subrule (1) of this rule is available from the National Fire Protection Association, Library, 1 Batterymarch Drive, Quincy, Massachusetts 02269-9101, for $41 and $327.75, respectively, the cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The standard adopted in this rule is available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

     

    R 299.11003 Adoption by reference of federal regulations.

    Rule 1003. (1) The following federal regulations in 40 C.F.R. are adopted by reference in these rules:

    (a)      40 C.F.R. part 60, appendices A and B.

    (b)      40 C.F.R. part 63, subparts EEE and LLL.

    (c)      40 C.F.R. part 124.

    (d)      40 C.F.R. part 144.

    (e)      40 C.F.R. part 145.

    (f)      40 C.F.R. part 146.

    (g)      40 C.F.R. part 147.

    (h) 40 C.F.R. §§260.20, 260.21, 260.22, 260.31, 260.32, and 260.33.

    (i)  40 C.F.R. §§261.10, 261.11, 261.21, 261.32(a), for K181 listing only, (c), and (d), 261.35(2)(b)(iii),

    and 261.38, except 261.38(a) and (b), 261.39(a)(5), and 261.41.

    (j) 40 C.F.R. part 261, appendix I, appendix II, appendix III, appendix VII, and appendix VIII.

    (k)  40 C.F.R. §§262.20, 262.21, 262.27, 262.34(m)(1) and (2), 262.40(a), (c), and (d), 262.41(a)(1)-(8),

    and 262.43, and 40 C.F.R. part 262, subparts E and H and the appendix to the part, except 40 C.F.R.

    §§262.54, 262.55, and 262.80.

    (l)      40 C.F.R. part 263, subpart B.

    (m)      ) 40 C.F.R. part 264, subpart B, subpart C, subpart D, subpart F, subpart G,

    subpart I, subpart J, subpart K, subpart L, subpart M, subpart N, subpart O, subpart X, subpart W, subpart AA, subpart BB, subpart CC, subpart EE, except 40 C.F.R. §§264.15(b)(5), 264.94(a)(2) and (3), 264.94(b) and  (c), 264.100, 264.101,  264.112(d)(1), 264.115, 264.120,  264.221(f), 264.251(f), 264.301(f), 264.340(a) to (d), 264.344(a)(2) and (b), and 264.1200.

    (n)  40 C.F.R. §§264.1(j)(1) to (13), 264.71(a) and (b), 264.72, 264.73, 264.75(a)-(j), 264.94(a)(2), table

    1, 264.141, 264.142, 264.144, 264.147(c), (d), and (f), 264.151(g), 264.341, 264.342(b)(1), 264.343,

    264.344(c)(1) and (c)(2), 264.345, 264.347, and 264.554, except 264.554(l).

    (o) 40 C.F.R. part 264, appendix I and appendix IX.

    (p)  40 C.F.R. part 265, except subparts E, H, DD, and O, and 40 C.F.R. §§265.15(b)(5), 265.112(d)(1), 265.115, and 265.120.

    (q) 40 C.F.R. part 265, appendices I and VI.

    (r)  40 C.F.R. part 266, subpart H, except §§266.100(a) and (b), 266.101, 266.102(a), and 266.112(a) and (c).

    (s) 40 C.F.R. §§266.203 and 266.205(a), (b), (d), and (e).

    (t)      40 C.F.R. part 266, appendices I through XIII.

    (u)      40 C.F.R. part 268, including appendices II through XI.

    (v)  40 C.F.R. §§270.10(e), (g), and (k), and (l)(1); 270.11; 270.13; 270.14(b) and (d); 270.15; 270.16;

    270.17; 270.18; 270.19(c); 270.20; 270.21; 270.22; 270.23; 270.24; 270.25; 270.26; 270.27; 270.30,

    except §270.30(l)(1) and (8); 270.31; 270.33; 270.41(a), except §270.41(a)(3); 270.62(a) to (d); 270.64;

    270.66; 270.70; 270.71; 270.73; and 40 C.F.R. part 270, subpart H, except §§270.80, 270.85, 270.90,

    270.155, 270.160, 270.190, 270.195, and 270.235(a) and (c).

     

     

    (w)  40 C.F.R. part 273, subpart B, subpart C, subpart D, and subpart E, except §§273.10, 273.18(b), 273.30, 273.38(b), 273.50, 273.53, and 273.60.

    (x)  40 C.F.R. §§279.22, except §279.22(a); 279.23, 279.24, 279.33, 279.41 to 279.43, 279.45, except

    §279.45(b); 279.46, 279.51, 279.52, 279.54, except §279.54(a); 279.55 to 279.58, 279.61, 279.62,

    279.64, except §279.64(a); 279.65, 279.66, 279.73, and 279.75.

    (y)     40 C.F.R. part 280.

    (z)     40 C.F.R. part 761.

    (2) Federal hazardous waste regulations are contained in 40 C.F.R. part 60 (appendices), 40 C.F.R. part 63, 40 C.F.R. parts 100 to 135, 40 C.F.R. 136 to 149, 40 C.F.R. parts 260 to 265, 40 C.F.R. parts 266 to 299, and 40 C.F.R. part 700 to 789, July 1, 20036 editions. These editions are available from the Superintendent of Documents, U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, 202-512- 1800, for $58, $50, $435, $61, $50, $50, and $61, respectively, the costs at the time these rules were promulgated. The provisions of 40 C.F.R. Parts 260, 261, 262, 264, 265, 266, 268, and 270 were amended in the Federal Register on July 14, 2006. The provisions of 40 C.F.R. Part 261 were amended in the Federal Register on July 28, 2006. Reprints of these federal registers are available from Solid Waste Information, U.S. EPA, 26 West St. Clair Street, Cincinnati, Ohio 45268, at no cost. The sections adopted by reference in this rule are available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

     

    R 299.11004    Federal regulations in 10 C.F.R., 29 C.F.R., 33 C.F.R., and 49 C.F.R.; adoption by reference.

    Rule 1004.  (1)  The federal regulations in 10 C.F.R. part 20, 10 C.F.R. part 61, and 10 C.F.R. part 71 are adopted by reference in these rules.

    (2)         The  federal  regulations  in  29 C.F.R. §§1910.120(q) and 1910.132 to 1910.138 and 29 C.F.R. part 1910, subpart L, are adopted by reference in these rules.

    (3)     The federal regulations in 33 C.F.R. §153.203 are adopted by reference in these rules.

    (4)     The following federal regulations in 49 C.F.R. are adopted by reference in these rules:

    (a)      49 C.F.R. part 107.

    (b)      49 C.F.R. part 130.

    (c)      49 C.F.R. part 171.

    (d)      49 C.F.R. part 172.

    (e)      49 C.F.R. part 173.

    (f)      49 C.F.R. part 174.

    (g)      49 C.F.R. part 175.

    (h)      49 C.F.R. part 176.

    (i)      49 C.F.R. part 177.

    (j)      49 C.F.R. part 178.

    (k)      49 C.F.R. part 179.

    (l)      49 C.F.R. part 180. (m) 49 C.F.R. §390.21.

    (5)      Federal nuclear regulatory commission regulations are contained in 10 C.F.R. parts 1 to 50 and 10

    C.F.R.  parts  51  to  199,  January  1,  20046  editions.  Federal  labor  regulations  are  contained  in 29 C.F.R. parts 1900 to 1910 and 29 C.F.R. parts 1927 to end, July 1, 20036  editions.  Federal navigation regulations are contained in 33 C.F.R. parts 125 to 199, July 1, 20036 edition. Federal transportation regulations are contained in 49 C.F.R. parts 100 to 185 and 49 C.F.R. parts 2300 to 399, October  1,  20036  editions.  These  editions  are  available  from  the  Superintendent  of  Documents,

    U.S. Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, for $601, $58, $61, $62, $61, $63, and $6432

     

     

    respectively, the costs at the time these rules were promulgated. The sections adopted in this rule are available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department.

     

    R 299.11005 Test methods for evaluating solid waste; adoption by reference.

    Rule 1005. (1) Test methods in the publication entitled "Test Methods for Evaluating Solid Waste, Physical/Chemical Methods," EPA Publication SW-846, Third Edition, November 1986, and its updates I (July 1992), II (September 1994), and IIA (August 1993), IIB (January 1995), III (December 1996),  and IIIA (April 1998), and IIIB (November 2004) are adopted by reference in these rules.

    (2)      The documents listed in subrule (1) of this rule are available online from the United States EPA, Office        of                Solid            Waste                and                     Emergency      Response,  http://www.epa.gov/epaoswer/hazwaste/test/main.htm, at no cost from the Superintendent of  Documents, Government Printing Office, Washington, DC 20402, (202) 512-1800, Document  Number 955-001-00000-1, for $367, the total cost at the time these rules were promulgated. The EPA Publication SW-846, Third Edition, and updates I, II, IIA, IIB, III, and IIIA, PB2002105715, and update IIIB, PB2003100855, documents listed in subrule (1) of this rule are available from the National Technical Information Service, 5285 Port Royal Road, Springfield, Virginia 22161, (703) 605-6000 or (800) 553-6847, for $397211, $123, $101, $21.50, $150, and $4725.50, respectively, the costs at the time these rules were promulgated. Update IIIA is available through the United States EPA'S Methods  Information Communication Exchange Service at (703) 676-4690 and the United States EPA, Office of  Solid Waste (5307W), OSW Methods Team, 1200 Pennsylvania Avenue, NW, Washington, DC 20460  at no cost. The documents adopted in this rule are available for inspection and distribution at the Lansing office of the department, the Library, United States EPA, 401 M Street, SW, Washington, DC 20460, and the Office of the Federal Register, 800 North Capitol Street, NW, Suite 700, Washington, DC 20002.